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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(119): “Ruling on Trading with Cellular Phone Card“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(119): “Ruling on Trading with Cellular Phone Cards“

Date: 1/3/1429 AH, corresponding to 9/3/2008 AD.

 

All perfect praise be to Allah The Lord of The Worlds, and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

The board received the following question:

A trader was asked to provide cellular phone cards that equal (500) JDs, then sell them by installments over one year with 20% as a profit. He has the following questions:

1- Is trading with cellular phone cards illegal?

2- Is it permissible to specify a certain percentage of profit, in general?

Answer: All success is due to Allah

1- It is permissible to trade with cellular phone cards because it is a kind of sale against a benefit. This is supported by the fact that these cards have a certain expiry date, and become useless after that date. Moreover, possession of such cards is tantamount to possession of a benefit, which is using the web of the telecommunications company that issued them for a specific period. One who has possession of a benefit may make it in the possession of someone else in return for a compensation, even if that compensation was more than the one against which he had possessed that benefit in the first place. However, cellular phone cards differ from paper money so as for people to say that they may not be sold for more than their actual value.

 

2- It is permissible to specify a certain margin of profit, whether for cellular phone cards, or any other commodity, because doing does not contradict the rules of Islamic Sharia.

And Allah Knows Best.

 

Head of the Iftaa` Department, The Grand Mufti of Jordan, Dr. Nooh Al-Qodat

Vice Head of the Iftaa` Board, Dr. Ahmad Hilayel

Sheikh AbdulKareem Al-Khasawneh/ Member

                                               Sheikh Sa`eid Hijjawi/ Member

                                               Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Essa/ Member

                                               Judge Sari Attieh/ Member

                                               Dr. Abdulrahamn Ibbdah/ Member

                                               Dr.Mohammad Oklah Al-Ibraheem/ Member

                                               Sheikh Na`eim Mujahid / Board Executive Secretary

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on deliberately breaking the fast while being capable of fasting?

Whoever intentionally breaks their fast in Ramadan without a valid excuse has committed a major sin and bears great guilt. They must repent, seek forgiveness, refrain from eating and drinking for the rest of the day, and make up for that day after Ramadan.
They have lost an immense reward, which cannot be compensated even by fasting an entire lifetime as a voluntary act, because an obligatory fast cannot be equaled by voluntary fasting.
If the fast was broken through sexual intercourse, the person must:
● Make up for the missed fast (qada), and
● Perform kaffarah by fasting two consecutive months.
● If they are unable to do so, they must feed sixty needy people.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law regarding one who slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, and is it permissible to slaughter the ewe if one knows it is pregnant?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
If a person slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, the fetus becomes lawful (ḥalāl) by virtue of its mother's slaughter (tabaʿan li-ummihā).
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.6/P.158): "A fetus found dead [after the mother's slaughter], or found alive but in a state resembling that of a slaughtered animal [i.e., dying shortly after], becomes lawful — whether or not it had grown fur — provided it is found in the womb of a mother that was lawfully slaughtered, whether her slaughter was by cutting the throat, or by an arrow or hunting dog sent after her. This is based on the ḥadīth: 'The slaughtering of the fetus is [effected by] the slaughtering of its mother' [narrated by al-Tirmidhī, who graded it ḥasan, and by Ibn Ḥibbān, who graded it ṣaḥīḥ] — meaning that the slaughter which rendered the mother lawful renders the fetus lawful as well, by virtue of following her; and because the fetus is one of her constituent parts, and her slaughter renders lawful all of her parts."
This ruling differs, however, from the case of one who knows from the outset that the ewe is pregnant [and intends to sacrifice her specifically as the udḥiyah while pregnant] — in which case, according to the Shāfi'ī school, she does not fulfill the requirement of a valid sacrifice.
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Bujayrimī 'alā al-Khaṭīb (Vol.4/P.335): "A pregnant animal does not fulfill the requirement [of a valid sacrifice], and this is the authoritative position (al-mu'tamad), because pregnancy diminishes the quality of the meat. As for why such an animal is nevertheless counted as complete [i.e., fully valid] in matters of zakāh, that is because the intent there is reproduction (nasl), not the quality of the meat.". And Allah, the Most High, knows best.

What is the ruling on the ablution of one who cuts his nails, and is it permissible to cut them before the ritual bath for major impurity (janabah)?

Cutting nails does not invalidate ablution, and it is permissible to cut them before the ritual bath for major impurity. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is "Bismillāhir-Raḥmānir-Raḥīm" a verse (āyah) of Sūrat al-Fātiḥah?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
The basmalah ("Bismillāhir-Raḥmānir-Raḥīm") is, without question, a verse (āyah) of the Noble Qur'an, and according to the Shāfi‘ī school, it constitutes a verse of Sūrat al-Fātiḥah itself. Al-Fātiḥah is a pillar of the prayer, and it consists of seven verses, of which the basmalah is one. The prayer is not valid without reciting it, nor if any of the Fātiḥah's verses, letters, or shaddahs (consonant doublings) are omitted or altered.
It is stated in Bushrā al-Karīm (Vol.1/p.202), from the books of the Shāfi‘ī school: "The basmalah is a complete verse of it [i.e., of al-Fātiḥah] in practice — and it suffices, for this to be established, that there be strong probability (ẓann), especially given that this has come very close to certainty (yaqīn), due to the consensus (ijmā‘) of the Companions on its inclusion in the muṣ-ḥaf [the written text of the Qur'an] in its script, despite their extreme diligence in excluding from it anything that did not genuinely belong to it — to the point that they even [carefully regulated] its diacritical dots and vowel markings." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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