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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(119): “Ruling on Trading with Cellular Phone Card“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(119): “Ruling on Trading with Cellular Phone Cards“

Date: 1/3/1429 AH, corresponding to 9/3/2008 AD.

 

All perfect praise be to Allah The Lord of The Worlds, and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

The board received the following question:

A trader was asked to provide cellular phone cards that equal (500) JDs, then sell them by installments over one year with 20% as a profit. He has the following questions:

1- Is trading with cellular phone cards illegal?

2- Is it permissible to specify a certain percentage of profit, in general?

Answer: All success is due to Allah

1- It is permissible to trade with cellular phone cards because it is a kind of sale against a benefit. This is supported by the fact that these cards have a certain expiry date, and become useless after that date. Moreover, possession of such cards is tantamount to possession of a benefit, which is using the web of the telecommunications company that issued them for a specific period. One who has possession of a benefit may make it in the possession of someone else in return for a compensation, even if that compensation was more than the one against which he had possessed that benefit in the first place. However, cellular phone cards differ from paper money so as for people to say that they may not be sold for more than their actual value.

 

2- It is permissible to specify a certain margin of profit, whether for cellular phone cards, or any other commodity, because doing does not contradict the rules of Islamic Sharia.

And Allah Knows Best.

 

Head of the Iftaa` Department, The Grand Mufti of Jordan, Dr. Nooh Al-Qodat

Vice Head of the Iftaa` Board, Dr. Ahmad Hilayel

Sheikh AbdulKareem Al-Khasawneh/ Member

                                               Sheikh Sa`eid Hijjawi/ Member

                                               Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Essa/ Member

                                               Judge Sari Attieh/ Member

                                               Dr. Abdulrahamn Ibbdah/ Member

                                               Dr.Mohammad Oklah Al-Ibraheem/ Member

                                               Sheikh Na`eim Mujahid / Board Executive Secretary

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the correct point at which to raise the hands when standing up for the third rak‘ah (after the middle tashahhud)?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Raising the hands while saying the takbīr [when rising for the third rak‘ah] is a recommended sunnah, and omitting it does not affect the validity of the prayer. The proper time for this is after rising from the middle tashahhud, once one has fully stood up.
It is stated in I‘ānat aṭ-Ṭālibīn (Vol.1/P.158): "His statement, 'and rising from the first tashahhud' — meaning, this manner [of raising the hands] is also a sunnah when he rises from the first tashahhud, that is, when he stands upright from it.
Consider [the question]: when precisely does the raising of the hands begin? Is it at the very start of rising from the first tashahhud, or after he has reached the minimum position of rukū‘ [i.e., once fully upright]? The apparent, [correct] view is the latter — even though the outward wording [of the text] might suggest the former — because at the very start of his rising, he is still relying on both hands [to push himself up, and therefore cannot yet raise them]."
It is stated in ‘Umdat as-Sālik (p. 53): "If his prayer extends beyond two rak‘ahs, he sits after them in the iftirāsh position, recites the tashahhud, and sends blessings upon the Prophet ﷺ alone, without [mentioning] his family [at this point]. He then stands while saying the takbīr, supporting himself with his hands; and once he has stood upright, he raises them level with his shoulders." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on swallowing phlegm while fasting?

If a fasting person intentionally swallows phlegm, their fast is invalid, as it is possible to avoid it.
However, if they swallow it unintentionally, their fast remains valid.
Phlegm is impure and should be avoided.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law regarding one who purchases a sacrificial animal (uḍḥiyah) and it then develops a defect before slaughter?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
If a defect that invalidates the sacrifice (uḍḥiyah) arises after its purchase — for example, if one purchased a sound, defect-free animal, and it then developed a limp, blindness in one eye, or a similar defect before slaughter — it does not fulfill the requirement of a valid uḍḥiyah, according to the Shāfi'ī school.
It is stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib fī Sharḥ Rawḍ al-Ṭālib (Vol.1/P.535): "Even if the limp develops [in the animal] while the knife is upon it, it still does not fulfill the requirement, because it is lame at the moment of slaughter — this is analogous to a case where a sheep's leg breaks and one hastens to slaughter it [in that condition]."
The Ḥanbalī school, however, held that if the one offering the sacrifice purchased the animal while it was sound and defect-free, and a defect then befell it afterward, the sacrifice remains valid and there is no obligation to replace it.
It is stated in Masā'il al-Imām Aḥmad, one of the Ḥanbalī reference works (Vol.8/P.4021): "I said: If a person purchases the sacrificial animal while it is sound, and it is then afflicted with illness, blindness in one eye, or a broken limb [before slaughter]? He [Imam Aḥmad] said: It is said that it still fulfills the requirement. Isḥāq said likewise, because he purchased it while sound, and the defect befell it only afterward, so it remains sufficient on his behalf." [End of quote]
Accordingly, a sheep afflicted with a defect that invalidates the sacrifice does not fulfill the requirement of a valid uḍḥiyah — whether the defect arose after purchase or during the slaughter itself — according to the Shāfi'ī school. However, there is no objection to following the Ḥanbalī position on this matter [as a valid alternative]. And Allah, the Most High, knows best.

If a father stops his daughter from getting married, is it permissible for her to conclude the marriage contract herself?

It is permissible for the father to stop his daughter from getting married if there was a lawful reason for that, and she isn`t allowed to conclude the marriage contract without her guardian. However, if her father denied her right in getting married for an unlawful reason, then she should go to court.

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