عربي
Home


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(116): “Sharia Ruing on Paying a Compensation to Partners“

Date Added : 28-10-2015

 

Resolution No.(116): “Sharia Ruing on Paying a Compensation to Partners“

Date: 4/9/1427 AH, corresponding to 27/9/2006 AD.

 

The Board received the following question:

In 1999, a person assumed operating a land in which he was a partner and which was irrigated free by a natural flow of a spring water. In 1994, the Water Authority of Jordan drew out its water shares in that spring in order to deliver them to residential areas. As a result, he was forced to purchase plastic pipes and a generator to pump the water to his land. In 2001, he and his partners filed a suit against the Water Authority of Jordan because of the harm inflicted on them. However, his partners didn`t cover any expenses concerning that lawsuit because the lawyer was supposed to receive a percentage from the compensation, so he had to cover all the expenses on his own. After filing that suit, his partners proposed selling their shares in that land to him, and he agreed and the deal was concluded. In February of 2006, the court ruled that the Water Authority of Jordan pays a compensation to the land owners because its value as irrigated land differed from its value as unirrigated land. On its part, the Water Authority of Jordan did pay the compensation and ordered the Lands Registration Department to transfer that land from irrigated into unirrigated. Is that person entitled to take that compensation for himself because he is the only one who was inflicted with harm while operating the land and after purchasing it as it was changed from irrigated into unirrigated, or is that compensation the right of all his partners?

Answer: All success is due to Allah

The Board is of the view that all partners are entitled to receive the compensation, and the above person`s purchase of their shares doesn`t deny them their right in the compensation since he did so after the suit was filed.

Besides, his partners sold him their shares after the price of the land had decreased. However, the Board sees that he is entitled to claim the costs, which he paid for buying the plastic pipes and the generator, from them. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

The Iftaa' Board

        Chairman of The Iftaa' Board

            Chief Justice/ Dr.Ahmad Hlyaal

                    Sheikh AbdelKareem Al-Khasawneh

Dr. Yousef Ali  Ghythan

                                                                 Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

                                                                 Sheikh Saeed Hijawii

Sheikh Naeem Mujahid

                                                                 Dr. Yaser Al-Shamali

 

Decision Number [ Previous | Next ]


Summarized Fatawaa

What is the waiting period ('Iddah) for a woman whose husband has passed away, and what is the ruling on her wearing gold?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
The waiting period ('Iddah) for a woman whose husband has passed away is four months and ten days for one who is not pregnant. As for a pregnant woman, her waiting period lasts until she gives birth. It is obligatory for her to remain in the marital home, only leaving for a necessity. During this time, it is prohibited (Haram) to display any form of adornment on the body or clothing; this includes wearing kohl, gold, all types of perfume, and dyeing the hair. Likewise, it is prohibited to receive a direct marriage proposal or to marry during this period.
 
It was narrated by Umm 'Atiyyah that the Prophet ﷺ said: 'We were forbidden to mourn for a deceased person for more than three days, except for a husband, for whom the mourning period is four months and ten days. During this time, we were not to use kohl, nor wear perfume, nor wear dyed clothing except for garments made of 'Asb (coarsely dyed yarn). We were, however, granted a concession at the time of purification—when one of us bathed following her menses—to use a small amount of Kust (costus) or Azfar (fragrant substances). We were also forbidden from following funeral processions.' (Narrated by Al-Bukhari). And Allah the Exalted knows best."

Is it permissible to agree with a butcher to purchase the meat of an animal after it has been slaughtered — for instance, by buying the meat of a sheep at a price determined by the weight of its meat following slaughter, at a fixed rate per kilogram? And what is the ruling if the animal is being purchased with the intention of it being an uḍḥiyyah (sacrificial offering)?

 
 
 
 
 

All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
It is not permissible to sell livestock in the manner of pricing each kilogram of meat after slaughter at a fixed rate, because the meat within the animal prior to slaughter is unseen and unknown. This leads to jahālah (ignorance of the subject matter) and gharar (contractual uncertainty), both of which are among the invalidating factors in sales transactions.
However, it is permissible for the buyer to issue a promise to purchase the meat of the animal after slaughter at a specified price per kilogram, with the actual sale being concluded at the time of weighing the meat — at which point both the quantity of the goods and the total price become known. There is no Sharī'ah objection to this arrangement.
The jurists have stipulated that for a sale to be valid, both countervalues must be present and observable. Al-Khaṭīb al-Shirbīnī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states:
"It is valid to sell a heap of grain whose total measure is unknown to both contracting parties at a rate of one sā' per dirham. This sale is valid because the subject of sale is present and observable, and ignorance of the total price is not harmful since it is known in detail — and uncertainty is thereby lifted."— [Mughnī al-Muḥtāj, Vol.2/P.355]
As for the uḍḥiyyah, the 'aqīqah, and vowed blood sacrifices (al-dam al-mandhūr) — full ownership of the animal must be established prior to slaughter. It is not valid for such animals to be slaughtered while still in the ownership of the butcher. Rather, the animal must be purchased alive and then slaughtered with the intention of uḍḥiyyah or the like. And Allah Almighty knows best.

If someone starts the day sick or traveling while fasting, is it permissible for them to break their fast?

● A sick person who finds fasting difficult is allowed to break their fast, whether they began the day fasting or not.
● As for a traveler:
○ If they were still at home at dawn and then traveled after Fajr (dawn), they must continue fasting unless they experience extreme hardship, in which case they may break their fast.
○ However, if they were already traveling when dawn broke—meaning they had left their town before Fajr—then they are permitted to break their fast. This is what the Prophetﷺ did during the year of the conquest (of Makkah).

What should someone do if they fasted for only 28 days in their country and then traveled to a place where Eid has already been declared?

If a person fasts in their country and then travels to another country where Eid has been declared, they must celebrate Eid with the people of that country.
● If their total fasts add up to 29 days, nothing is required of them.
● However, if they have only fasted 28 days, they must make up one day after Eid, because an Islamic month cannot be only 28 days.

See More