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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(116): “Sharia Ruing on Paying a Compensation to Partners“

Date Added : 28-10-2015

 

Resolution No.(116): “Sharia Ruing on Paying a Compensation to Partners“

Date: 4/9/1427 AH, corresponding to 27/9/2006 AD.

 

The Board received the following question:

In 1999, a person assumed operating a land in which he was a partner and which was irrigated free by a natural flow of a spring water. In 1994, the Water Authority of Jordan drew out its water shares in that spring in order to deliver them to residential areas. As a result, he was forced to purchase plastic pipes and a generator to pump the water to his land. In 2001, he and his partners filed a suit against the Water Authority of Jordan because of the harm inflicted on them. However, his partners didn`t cover any expenses concerning that lawsuit because the lawyer was supposed to receive a percentage from the compensation, so he had to cover all the expenses on his own. After filing that suit, his partners proposed selling their shares in that land to him, and he agreed and the deal was concluded. In February of 2006, the court ruled that the Water Authority of Jordan pays a compensation to the land owners because its value as irrigated land differed from its value as unirrigated land. On its part, the Water Authority of Jordan did pay the compensation and ordered the Lands Registration Department to transfer that land from irrigated into unirrigated. Is that person entitled to take that compensation for himself because he is the only one who was inflicted with harm while operating the land and after purchasing it as it was changed from irrigated into unirrigated, or is that compensation the right of all his partners?

Answer: All success is due to Allah

The Board is of the view that all partners are entitled to receive the compensation, and the above person`s purchase of their shares doesn`t deny them their right in the compensation since he did so after the suit was filed.

Besides, his partners sold him their shares after the price of the land had decreased. However, the Board sees that he is entitled to claim the costs, which he paid for buying the plastic pipes and the generator, from them. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

The Iftaa' Board

        Chairman of The Iftaa' Board

            Chief Justice/ Dr.Ahmad Hlyaal

                    Sheikh AbdelKareem Al-Khasawneh

Dr. Yousef Ali  Ghythan

                                                                 Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

                                                                 Sheikh Saeed Hijawii

Sheikh Naeem Mujahid

                                                                 Dr. Yaser Al-Shamali

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on a person in a state of major impurity (junub) or a menstruating woman (ha'id) reciting the Quran from memory?

It is not permissible for a menstruating woman, a postpartum woman, or a person in a state of major impurity to recite anything from the Quran, whether from memory, from the Quran, from a phone, or a computer. It is also not permissible for them to touch the Quran, based on what was reported from Ali bin Abi Talib that the Prophet (peace be upon him) was not prevented from anything regarding the Quran except major impurity (janabah). (Reported by al-Tirmidhi who said it is a hasan sahih hadith). Menstruation and postpartum bleeding are analogous to major impurity (janabah) as they are all major impurities (hadath akbar).
For those mentioned, it is permissible to mention Allah and supplicate even with verses from the Quran, provided they do not intend them as recitation of the Quran, but intend them as remembrance (dhikr) or supplication (du'a). And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is the one offering the sacrifice liable if its meat spoils?

Praise be to Allah, and prayers and peace be upon our Master the Messenger of Allah.
 
If the meat (of the sacrifice) spoils due to the negligence of the one offering the sacrifice in preserving it, or due to improper storage, then he is liable to compensate for the portion due to the poor (which is estimated as half a kilogram of meat). If the sacrifice was a vowed (mandatory) one, then he is liable for all of it.
 
However, if he was not negligent, then there is no liability upon him, because its ruling is the ruling of a trust (like an item left in someone's care). And Allah Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on ablution if vaginal discharge is expelled, and is it impure?

If these discharges exit from the external genitalia (apparent part of the vagina), they are not impure and do not invalidate ablution. If they exit from the internal part, they are impure and do invalidate ablution. If it is uncertain whether they are from the internal or external part, they are not impure and do not invalidate ablution.
 
The apparent part is what becomes visible when sitting, and what the husband's penis reaches during intercourse is considered part of the apparent. The internal part is what is beyond that. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

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