Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(103): “Sharia Ruling on Investing the Waqf Funds“

Date Added : 28-10-2015

 

Resolution No.(103) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

 "Sharia Ruling on Investing the Waqf Funds"

Date: 5/4/1427 AH, corresponding to 3/5/2006.

 

Question:

 

Awqaf Funds Development Foundation has the amount of (1.700.000) JDs as Waqf revenues of past years, and  wishes to make it a monetary Waqf to be invested and its revenues to be spent for charity. What is the ruling of Sharia in this regard?

Answer:

After extensive researching and deliberation, the Board decided that since the above sum is the yield of past years,  it is difficult to know the terms which were set by its Waqifeen (endowers) in order to spend it  accordingly, as Sharia obligates in such case. The religious interest dictates non-freezing of such funds because the terms of their endowers aren`t known; therefore, it is permissible to regard them as a monetary Waqf (endowment) to be developed and invested by the above Foundation in all that is lawful. This in order for the yield to be spent in different charitable channels, provided that the terms set by the endowers are met as much as possible since the condition of the endower is tantamount to the provisions of the Law-Giver. Moreover, since the above Foundation functions as the trustee of the Waqf, then it is permissible for it to allocate a certain amount from these returns to cover the expenses and wages of its employees, but within reasonable limits along with maintaining the original capital.

This is based on the following Hadith :"Concerning the Waqf of 'Umar: It was not sinful of the trustee (of the Waqf) to eat or provide his friends from it, provided the trustee had no intention of collecting fortune (for himself). Ibn 'Umar was the manager of the trust of 'Umar and he used to give presents from it to those with whom he used to stay at Mecca." {Bukhari}. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

Iftaa` Board

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Dr. Ahmad Hilayel

Dr. AbdulMajeed Al-Salaheen

Dr. Abdukareem Al-Khasawneh

Dr. Yousef Ghyzaan

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

Sheikh Sae`id Hijjawi

Sheikh Nae`im Mujahid

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible for a woman in her menstrual period to recite from the Mus-haf (copy of the Quran ), or to recite by heart?

A menstruating woman is permitted neither to recite nor to touch the Quran according to what Ali Bin Abi Talib (May Allah be pleased with him) reported about the Prophet (PBUH) who was only held from reciting the Holy Quran by Janabah (Major impurity) [Al-Tirmizi in a sound Hadith]. Although Janabah and menstruation are major impurities, a menstruating woman is permitted to supplicate Allah (Duaa`) and make Zikr (Tasbihat ), even if these involved saying words from the Holy Quran, provided that she does not mean the words for themselves but as a supplication, or Zikr. Moreover, she is rewarded for not reciting the Quran during her menstrual period because she abided by the injunctions of Allah.

Is the son of the sister by breastfeeding considered a mahram in Islam, and is it permissible for a woman to go for Hajj with him?

Everything that is prohibited by lineage is also prohibited by breastfeeding. The son of the sister by breastfeeding is considered a mahram, just like the son of the sister by blood, and it is permissible for him to be her mahram for Hajj and Umrah. And Allah Knows Best.

Does undergoing surgery under anesthesia break the fast?

Anesthesia itself does not break the fast because anesthetic gases have no physical substance (jirm), and subcutaneous anesthesia injections do not reach the body cavity (jauf). However, this is on condition that the person is conscious at some point during the fasting hours:
● If they were awake at the beginning of the day, their fast remains valid.
● If they wake up even for a moment before sunset, their fast is also valid.
However, if the surgery involves the entry of foreign substances into the body cavity, their fast is invalidated, and they must make up for that day later.

Is it permissible for a wife to boycott (not to attend to his different needs) her husband?

It isn`t permissible for the woman to boycott her husband unless he is the reason behind that, and it is recommended that both spouses seek the advice of righteous people to make reconciliation.