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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(80): "Ruling on Leasing Lands with Fruitful Trees before the Fruit Ripens"

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(80) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

 "Ruling on Leasing Lands  with Fruitful Trees before the Fruit  Ripens"

Date: 17/2/1425 AH, corresponding to 7/4/2004 AD.

 

Question:

What is the ruling on renting lands, cultivated with fruitful trees of unripe yield, for over a year and in return for a certain cash amount?

Answer:

All success is due to Allah.

After study, research, and deliberation, the Board drew a distinction between two types of lands:

The First type: Uncultivated lands, and these take the ruling of Muzaaraa`h (Sharecropping or cropping partnership contract) which is permissible according to the following Muslim scholars - although they have disagreed on some of the details: Ahmad, Malik, Al-Awzai, Is-haak, Mohammad, Ibn Abi Lailah, Al-Zahiryah, Tawoos, Al-Sho`bi, Ibn Sirene, and Al-Qaasim Bin Mohammad.

This transaction is considered lawful based on the Hadith in which Ibn Umar (Allah be pleased with them) reported that: "Allah's Messenger (PBUH) contracted with the people of Khaibar the (trees) on the condition that he would have half the produce in fruits and harvest.” [Bukhari].

Al-Imam An-Nawawi said: "The above Hadith indicates that Muzaaraa`h is permissible as it has been practiced by Muslims in all countries and in all times. It was permitted in Khaibar because it was intended as Musaaqaah (share tenancy or the partnership in the yield of trees). Amongst the rules of Muzaaraa`h are: determining a time span such as a year or more and determining a share from the overall yield such as half or third each."

It is also permissible to rent such lands against a fixed amount of gold or silver or cash as reported in the Hadiths (Prophetic traditions) pertaining to this issue such as those narrated on the authority of both Bukhari and Muslim.

For example, it was narrated that Hanzalah Bin Qais said: "I asked Rafi`Bin Khadij about leasing land. He said: “The Messenger of Allah (PBUH) forbade leasing land. I said: “For gold or silver? He said: No, rather he forbade leasing it in return for what the land produces. As for gold and silver, there is nothing wrong with that.slim). Although renting is permissible, Muzaaraa`h is better as stated by some scholars: “ Muzaaraa`h is better because it is more justful."

The second type: Lands with trees, and this type takes the ruling of Musaaqaa`h (Share tenancy or the partnership in the yield of trees). [Al-Ahkaam Magazine/pp.1441]. Amongst the evidences that Musaaqaa`h is lawful as mentioned in the above Hadith reported by Ibn Omar. It is also considered permissible according to the following scholars: Ahmad, Al-Shafi`e, Al-Awza`I, Abu Thawr, Abu Yousef, and Mohammad Bin Abi Laylah.

One of the rules in this type of transaction is that it is a condition that the share of each party from the overall yield of the land must be determined, a half or third each.

Therefore, it is impermissible to determine the share of the contracting parties according to the yield of a certain portion of trees. It is also impermissible to rent such lands in return for cash regardless of the time span, whether before or after the fruits had become sound or ripe. 

As regards selling the fruit, it is impermissible to do so unless it was sound or rosy since the Prophet (PBUH) forbade selling fruits before showing signs that they are sound and ripe. It was narrated that he (PBUH) forbade selling the produce several years in advance. Yahya related from Malik from Humayd At-Tawil from Anas Ibn Malik that the Messenger of Allah, may Allah bless him and grant him peace, forbade selling fruit until it had become mellow. He was asked: "Messenger of Allah! What do you mean by become mellow?" He said: "When it becomes rosy." The Messenger of Allah (PBUH) added: "Allah may prevent the fruit from maturing, so how can you take payment from your brother for it." [Moslim]. Maturing mean the soundness of the fruit; therefore, it is impermissible to rent fruitful trees for their fruit (the trees are owned by the leasee) whereas, it is permissible to sell the fruit after it had ripened. And Allah Knows Best.

The Board of Iftaa`
Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izzaldeen At-Tamimi
Dr. Nooh Al-Qhodat
Dr. Mohammad Abu Yahia
Dr. Abdulkareem Khasawneh
Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri
Sheikh Naei`m Mujahid
Sheikh Sae`id Hijjawi

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Summarized Fatawaa

My father has debts and asked me to repay them years ago, and I promised him I would do so upon his death — is it permissible for me to go back on my promise given that I am unable to repay them, especially since he refuses to contribute to repayment on the grounds that the debt has become my responsibility by virtue of my promise?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
The established principle is that a father's debt is to be repaid from his own wealth, if he possesses sufficient means. As for the promise made by the son to repay it on his father's behalf, fulfilling such a promise is strongly recommended, and breaking it is considerably disliked. Shaykh al-Islām Imām al-Nawawī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states: "Fulfilling a promise is emphatically recommended, and breaking it is severely disliked. The evidences for this from the Qurʾān and the Sunnah are well known." [Rawḍat al-Ṭālibīn,Vol. 2/P.278] Shaykh al-Islām Imām Zakariyyā al-Anṣārī, may Allah have mercy upon him, further states: "The reason fulfilling a promise is not obligatory and breaking it is not forbidden is that a promise is in the nature of a gift, and a gift does not become binding except upon receipt." [Asnā al-Maṭālib fī Sharḥ Rawḍ al-Ṭālib,Vol. 2/P.487]
Given that the son does not possess the financial means to fulfil his promise to his father, breaking this promise falls beyond his capacity — and Allah does not burden a soul beyond what it can bear. Since the father himself possesses sufficient wealth to settle his own debt, repayment must be made from his own funds. Should he pass away before doing so, the debt is to be settled from his estate. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on one who vows to fast a specific or non-specific year? Are the two Eids, the days of Tashreeq, Ramadan, and the days of menstruation and postnatal bleeding included in them? And do these days break the consecutiveness if it was intended?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
If someone makes a vow (Nadr) to fast a specific, designated year, this vow does not include the days of Eid, the days of Tashreeq (the three days following Eid al-Adha), Ramadan, or the days of menstruation (Hayd) and postnatal bleeding (Nifas). Furthermore, there is no requirement to make up (Qada) these specific days.
 
However, if someone vows to fast a year that is not specifically designated (i.e., any twelve-month period) and stipulates that the fasting must be consecutive, they are bound by that condition. They must not fast on the days of Eid, during Ramadan, or during menstruation, but they are required to make up these days afterward—with the exception of the days of menstruation and postnatal bleeding, which do not need to be made up.
 
It is stated in Hashiyat al-Bajuri ‘ala Sharh Ibn Qasim ({Vol.2/P.606): 'If one vows to fast a specific year, the Eid, Tashreeq, Ramadan, and days of menstruation or postnatal bleeding are not included. This is because Ramadan does not accept any fast other than its own, and the others do not accept fasting at all. Therefore, they do not enter into the vow, and no makeup is required for them because they are legally excluded—contrary to Al-Rafi’i regarding menstruation and postnatal bleeding.
 
If one vows to fast a non-designated year: if they stipulated consecutiveness (Tatuabu’) in their vow, they must fulfill it; otherwise, they are not bound to it. Consecutiveness is not broken by the days that do not enter into the specific year vow (Eid, Tashreeq, Ramadan, menstruation, and postnatal bleeding). However, one must make up the days missed—excluding the time of menstruation and postnatal bleeding—immediately following the end of the year. As for the time of menstruation and postnatal bleeding, it is not made up, contrary to Ibn al-Rif’ah, who argued that it must be made up just like Ramadan.' And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the ruling on a young man and a young woman having a love relation for the purpose of getting married?

It is forbidden for a man and a woman to have any kind of relation whether for marriage, or not because it leads to committing sin. Such relations include: private meetings, mixing, gazing, and seclusion (Khulwa). Accordingly, one who is sincere in his intentions should go to the woman`s guardian and ask for her hand in marriage.

Is fidyah required for someone who breaks their fast due to a valid excuse?

● If the excuse is permanent, such as a chronic illness with no hope of recovery or old age, then fidyah is required. This means feeding one needy person for each missed fasting day.
● However, if the excuse is temporary, such as menstruation, postnatal bleeding, or a temporary illness, then only making up the missed fasts (qada) is required, and fidyah does not apply.

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