Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(69): “Ruling of Sharia on the Definition of Reproductive Health“

Date: 5/8/1424 AH corresponding to 1/10/2003 AD.

 

The Board has received the following question:

What is the opinion of the Iftaa` Board as regards the following definition of reproductive health?

Reproductive health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity, in all matters relating to the reproductive system and to its functions and processes. Reproductive health therefore implies that people are able to have a satisfying and safe sex life and that they have the capability to reproduce and the freedom to decide if, when and how often to do so. Implicit in this last condition are the right of men and women to be informed and to have access to safe, effective, affordable and acceptable methods of family planning of their choice, as well as other methods of their choice for regulation of fertility which are not against the law, and the right of access to appropriate health-care services that will enable women to go safely through pregnancy and childbirth and provide couples with the best chance of having a healthy infant. {The International Conference on Population Development}.

Answer: All success is due to Allah.

After reviewing the above definition, the Board made the following remarks:

1- The statement: “Reproductive health therefore implies that people are able to have a satisfying and safe sex life and that they have the capability to reproduce and the freedom to decide if, when and how often to do so” contradicts with the rules of Islamic Sharia, so it must read  as follows: “Reproductive health therefore implies that both spouses are able to have a satisfying and safe sex life and that they have the capability to reproduce and the freedom to decide if, when and how often to do so, in line with the rules of Islamic Sharia.“

2- The above definition includes legal and illegal relationships between men and women, and this violates the principles of Islam, which only permits relationships through legal and valid marriage since Allah, the Almighty Says in this regard {what means}: “It is He Who has created man from water: then has He established relationships of lineage and marriage: for thy Lord has power (over all things).” {Al-Furqan/54}. Scholars stated about the interpretation of this verse: {Lineage is the mixing of water (sperm) between a male and a female legally; otherwise, it becomes neither a lineage nor a marriage.} Allah Says {what means}: “And among His Signs is this, that He created for you mates from among yourselves, that ye may dwell in tranquillity with them, and He has put love and mercy between your (hearts): verily in that are Signs for those who reflect.” {Ar-Rum/21}.

3- The statement: “Which are not against the law “isn`t in line with the rules of Islamic Sharia, so it must read as follows: “Which aren`t against the rules of Islamic Sharia.” This is because it is an obligation on every Muslim man and woman to abide by the rules of Sharia, and not to commit any act that violates them, for Allah Says {what means}: “But no, by the Lord, they can have no (real) Faith, until they make thee judge in all disputes between them, and find in their souls no resistance against Thy decisions, but accept them with the fullest conviction.” {An-Nisa`/65}. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Iftaa` Board

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izz Al-Deen Al-Tamimi

                Dr. Mohammad Abu Yahia               

    Dr. Yousef Gheezaan

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

   Sheikh Saeid Hijjawi

        Sheikh Na`eim Mujahid

                 Sheikh Mahmoud Shwayyaat

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Summarized Fatawaa

If husband doesn`t pray, but wife does, is their marriage contract considered valid or not?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Not observing daily prayers is a grave sin, but doesn`t invalidate a person`s marriage contract. However, we advise you to save your husband from hellfire by convincing him to observe the prescribed prayers. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

Is it permissible for a father to disinherit his disobedient, alcohol consuming son and his daughter who had fled home and never returned?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It is permissible to give heirs some money because of their being extra obedient or needy. As far as inheritance is concerned, it is to be divided after one`s death, so it had better be left to the court itself. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

Is it permissible to pay the Fitr Zakah(obligatory charity) of Ramadhaan on behalf of a dead person?

The Fitr Zakah of Ramadhaan isn`t due on one who had passed away before the sunset of the last day of Ramadhaan.

What is the ruling on giving Zakah(obligatory charity)to one`s relatives?

It is impermissible to pay Zakah to one`s origins( parents and grandparents) because providing for them is an obligation on their branches (sons and daughters )if they were poor, but it is permissible to give some of the Zakah money to relatives whose provision isn`t due on the giver of the Zakah.