Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(59): “Ruling on Planting Trees in Graveyards“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

   

Resolution No.(59): “Ruling on Planting Trees in Graveyards“

Date: 9/11/1422 AH corresponding to 23/1/2002 AD.

 

Question:

What is the ruling of Islamic Sharia on planting trees in graveyards?

Answer: All success is due to Allah.

According to Islamic Sharia, planting trees in graveyards is permissible since it is included within the general meaning of the Sharia maxim which states that, in principle, things are permissible so long as there is no provision from the Quran and the Sunnah proving otherwise, and there is no evidence that forbids such an act. However, trees shouldn`t be planted directly above the graves, rather, they should be planted in the corridors and places where there are no graves. This is in order for their roots not to harm the dead because doing so is forbidden as stated in the Prophet`s Hadith {what means}: "Breaking a deceased body’s bones is exactly like breaking them when he is alive.” {Related by Abu Dawud in accordance with the conditions of Muslim}. And Allah Knows Best.

Iftaa` Board

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izz Al-Deen Al-Tamimi

                 Dr. Mohammad Abu Yahia     

                                                                     Dr. Ahmad Hilayel

                   Dr. Abdulsalam Al-Abbadi        

                 Sheikh Mahmoud Shwayyaat

     Dr. Yousef Gheezaan

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

   Sheikh Saeid Hijjawi

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What are the conditions for the validity of the slaughtering process according to Sharia?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
Regarding the Sharia-mandated conditions for the validity of the slaughtering process (Adh-Dhabh), they are as follows:
 
The Identity of the Slaughterer: The person performing the slaughter must be either a Muslim or from the People of the Book (Christian or Jewish).
 
The Required Cuts: Both the trachea (windpipe/breathing passage) and the esophagus (food passage) must be completely severed.
 
Stability of Life: The animal must possess stable life at the start of the slaughtering process. This is identified by clear signs, such as vigorous movement or the forceful gushing of blood after the throat and esophagus are cut.
 
The Tool of Slaughter: The tool used must be sharp, capable of cutting or piercing by its edge and not by its sheer weight or blunt force.
 
And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on omitting the prostration of recitation?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
The prostration of recitation (Sajdat al-Tilawah) is a Sunnah for both the reader and the listener. There is no sin in omitting it, though doing so results in missing a great reward. Muslim narrated from Abu Hurairah (may Allah be pleased with him) that the Prophet ﷺ said: 'When the son of Adam recites a verse of prostration and prostrates, Shaytan withdraws weeping, saying: "Woe to him! (and in the narration of Abu Kuraib: "Woe to me!") The son of Adam was commanded to prostrate and he prostrated, so Paradise is his; and I was commanded to prostrate and I refused, so the Fire is mine."'
 
Sheikh al-Islam Imam al-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) stated: 'It is recommended to prostrate immediately after reciting or hearing a verse of prostration. If one delays it but the interval is short, he may still prostrate. However, if the interval is long, the opportunity is missed.' [Rawdat al-Talibin Vol.1/P.323].
 
Furthermore, the prostration of recitation becomes obligatory (Wajib) in congregational prayer if the Imam prostrates, out of the necessity of following him. And Allah the Exalted knows best.

Can someone break a make up fast (qada) after beginning it?

Once a person begins a make up fast (qada), it is prohibited to break it.
If they break it without a valid excuse, they are sinful, and the missed Ramadan fast remains a debt upon them.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.