عربي
Home


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(7) “ Ruling on the Guardianship of an Apostate “

Date Added : 27-10-2015

Resolution No.(7) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:
      “Ruling on the Guardianship of an Apostate“

Question: Does apostasy make a father ineligible for guardianship over his family?

 

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his Family and Companions.

All members of the  Board have agreed that an apostate isn`t considered eligible for guardianship over his Muslim children, so long as he remains as such, for the following reasons:

1- The verse which reads (What means): “And never will God grant to the unbelievers a way (to triumphs) over the believers. “ {An-Nissa`/141}.

2- Article No.(2) of the Jordanian Constitution states that Islam is the official religion of the state.

3- According to Sharia, an apostate deserves to be killed unless he reverts to Islam, and this is why he takes the rulings of  the dead as far as his family affairs are concerned.

4- An apostate is no longer a member of the Muslim community, and this is why he takes the ruling of the dead.

Accordingly, once the  Sharia judge passes the verdict that Mr… is an apostate, and  separates him from his wife, then there is no reason in Sharia that prevents issuing a family register in the wife`s name, in which her minor children are included as she becomes responsible for them. This is provided that the new register indicates the lineage  of these children, and states that their father has become an apostate. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 Iftaa` Committee

 

Decision Number [ Previous | Next ]


Summarized Fatawaa

An Imam stood to offer a fifth Rak`ah in a four-Rak`ah prayer, and he was reminded to sit by those behind him, but he wouldn`t listen. What is the ruling on those who followed his lead knowingly and intentionally?

If the Imam stood to offer a fifth Rak`ah, those praying behind him shouldn`t have approved of that, and the prayer of those who did is considered null and void.

Is it permissible for a father to divide his property amongst his children except one under the pretext that he has paid for the latter`s tuition? This is knowing that his other children were given the opportunity to pursue their education but didn`t because they were educationally poor. Moreover, is he allowed to give his other children who have helped him with growing his business?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
The father should be just between his children as regards gifts, in case they had similar circumstances. However, if any had a special merit, then it is permissible for the father to take that into account to be just. For example, giving his children who have helped in making his fortune and received no reward for that or giving the little ones because they haven`t taken as much as the older ones or giving the sick child who is unable to make a living. The most important thing is achieving justice. Moreover, the father is not interdicted by any of his children, and he is free to do whatever he wants with his money and Allah will call him to account as regards observing justice between his children. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
 
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
 

Does the date for menstrual menses change, and how is the increase calculated?

If the bleeding lasts no less than (24) hours, but doesn’t exceed (15) days, and the purity interval between the two menses is no less than (15) days, then it is menstruation even if the date of menses changes, or its duration increases.

See More