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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(7) “ Ruling on the Guardianship of an Apostate “

Date Added : 27-10-2015

Resolution No.(7) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:
      “Ruling on the Guardianship of an Apostate“

Question: Does apostasy make a father ineligible for guardianship over his family?

 

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his Family and Companions.

All members of the  Board have agreed that an apostate isn`t considered eligible for guardianship over his Muslim children, so long as he remains as such, for the following reasons:

1- The verse which reads (What means): “And never will God grant to the unbelievers a way (to triumphs) over the believers. “ {An-Nissa`/141}.

2- Article No.(2) of the Jordanian Constitution states that Islam is the official religion of the state.

3- According to Sharia, an apostate deserves to be killed unless he reverts to Islam, and this is why he takes the rulings of  the dead as far as his family affairs are concerned.

4- An apostate is no longer a member of the Muslim community, and this is why he takes the ruling of the dead.

Accordingly, once the  Sharia judge passes the verdict that Mr… is an apostate, and  separates him from his wife, then there is no reason in Sharia that prevents issuing a family register in the wife`s name, in which her minor children are included as she becomes responsible for them. This is provided that the new register indicates the lineage  of these children, and states that their father has become an apostate. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 Iftaa` Committee

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on performing Tarawih in sets of four rak‘ahs with only one Tasleem?

It is not permissible to combine more than two rak‘ahs with a single Tasleem in Tarawih prayer. Whoever does so, their prayer is invalid. Shaykh al-Islam Imam Muhammad al-Ramli (may Allah have mercy on him) stated: "If a person prays four rak‘ahs of the Tarawih prayer with a single Tasleem, it is not valid if they did so intentionally and with knowledge [of the prohibition]. Otherwise, it becomes an 'absolute voluntary prayer' (nafl mutlaq); because it is contrary to what has been prescribed." [Nihayat al-Muhtaj, Vol.2/P.127].

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on speaking with one's fiancée (before the marriage contract) by telephone and WhatsApp?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
Before the marriage contract, the two engaged persons remain non-mahram (strangers) to one another. Reciting al-Fātiḥah, receiving some money on account of the dowry (mahr), or accepting a gift are all merely a promise of marriage and not a valid contract under the Sharīʿah.
It is therefore forbidden for the engaged couple, before the marriage contract is concluded, to be alone together (khalwah) or to shake hands. It is likewise forbidden to speak by telephone or correspond without need. And Allah Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on bypassing a nearby mosque for a distant one?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
If a distant mosque has a larger congregation (Jama‘ah) while the congregation in the nearby mosque is smaller, and the congregation in the nearby mosque is not adversely affected by the worshiper's absence, then it is better for him to pray in the distant mosque with the larger congregation. However, if the congregation in the nearby mosque would be affected by his absence—such as if he is its Imam, or if his presence encourages others to attend—then praying in the nearby mosque is better. This ensures that the congregation is established in two different locations within the community. This is based on the saying of the Prophet ﷺ: 'A man's prayer offered with another man is purer than his prayer which he offers alone, and his prayer with two men is purer than his prayer with one and if they are more (in number), it is more beloved to Allah, the Mighty the Majestic' (Narrated by Ahmad, Abu Dawood, and An-Nasa'i). And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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