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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Date Added : 08-10-2015

Resolution No.(167) (8/2011) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on the Uncovered Credit Card at the Islamic Bank"

Date 26/8/1432AH, corresponding to 28/7/2011AD.

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
During its eleventh session held on the above given date, the Board reviewed the following question:
What is the ruling of Sharia when a client of the Islamic Bank requests issuing him a credit card in return for a charge (15-30) JDs, where he uses this card to purchase products while his balance is uncovered, so the bank debits them to his account until his salary arrives. Afterwards, the bank deducts the exact value of those products from the client`s salary. However, if he withdrew a certain cash amount from an ATM using that card-while his balance is uncovered- the bank deducts it from his salary in addition to 4% of that amount?
After prolonged deliberations, the Board decided:
Part one: The issuance charge (15-30) JDs charged by the bank on annual basis  against offering actual services to the client is permissible if it equals them. Also, if the client made a withdrawal from the bank by using this card while having a covered balance, then it is permissible for the bank to deduct a specific fee in return for that service.
Part two: Making a withdrawal through this card from ATM machine while the client`s balance is uncovered and the bank deducting it from his salary in addition to 4% from the withdrawn amount is unlawful. This is because in Sharia terms this transaction is classified as a loan and the Sharia maxim in this regard states that every loan which leads to a benefit is usurious. Consequently, every interest that results from this loan in favor of the bank is a forbidden usury. Allah, The Almighty, Says (What means): "Those who devour usury will not stand except as stand one whom the Evil one by his touch Hath driven to madness. That is because they say: "Trade is like usury," but God hath permitted trade and forbidden usury" {Al-Baqarah/275}. And Allah Knows Best.


Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, The Mufti General of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan, His Grace Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh.
Vice Head of the Iftaa` Board, Dr. Ahmad Helayel
Dr. Yahia Al-Botoosh/ Member
His Eminence, Sheikh Sa`ied Hijjawi/ Member
Judge Sari Attieh/ Member
Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Essa/ Member
Prof. Abduln`nassir Abu Al Bass`al/ Member
Dr. Mohammad Oklah Al-Ib`brahim
Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh/ Member
Dr. Mohammad Al-Gharaibeh/ Member
Dr.Abdulrahmann Ibbdah/ Member
Executive Secretary of the Iftaa` Board, Sheikh Mohammad Al-Hunaiti

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

After our father had passed away, my brother and I stayed with our mother for twenty years and served her to the best of our effort. However, she asked our other brothers (3) to support her financially but they refused to pay her anything. As a result, she gave her share of the inheritance to me and my brother. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It is recommended to give one`s children, males and females, equally. However, your mother is allowed to give one of them more than the others because he/she is needy or more dutiful to her than the others. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.  

Is it permissible for a wife to give her money to her family as a charity, or a gift without asking her husband, or seeking his consent?

The wife has the right to give her money as a charity, or a gift to her family, or to other people after consulting her husband out of respect, and this is the meaning of treating on footing of kindness and equity. Therefore, if he wanted to stop her from helping her family, then there is no harm in not telling him.

Is a woman`s prayer considered invalid if non-Mahrams (marriageable men) saw her offering it?

A woman`s prayer isn`t invalidated if non-Mahrams saw her offering it, but she had better pray in isolation.

Is a person who is in a state of Janabah (major ritual impurity due to having a marital intercourse, ejaculation, menstruation, and post-delivery impurities) sinful if he/she goes about his/her daily life activities in that state i.e. without making Ghusl (ritual bath)?

It goes without saying that a Muslim should always be in a state of ritual purity so as to be able to perform prayers and recite Quran. It is from Sunnah (Prophetic tradition) that a Muslim hastens to make Ghusl from Janabah, but he/she is not sinful in case he/she delayed that provided that he/she doesn`t miss prayers. However, it is permissible for him/her to go about their daily activities while in a state of Janabah, but had better bathe in order not to miss any prayer.

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