I have mixed (halal and haram) money, and I want to purify it. My father is poor, and I want him, my mother, and my mother-in-law to perform Hajj, along with myself and my wife, as they need care due to their old age. Is it permissible to use this money for Hajj, or what should I do with it? Please advise.
If you knew the exact amount of unlawful money, then you should give as a charity, and if didn't then try to figure out the closest amount in order to give it as a charity.
As for performing Hajj, perform it by using your lawful money. May Allah Bless you for being dutiful to your parents and your mother in law and for your attempt to serve them, And Allah Knows Best.
Is it true that whatever is dry is pure even if there was impurity on it?
The impure material object does not soil (make impure) anything else unless the impurity is wet and transferable. But, if the impurity is dry or non-transferable, then there is no problem. Fuqaha has stated that: There is no disagreement between Muslim scholars that when a dry impurity touches something dry it does not make the latter impure.
What is the ruling of Sharia on unregistered marriage in Jordan?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Aishah narrated that the Messenger of Allah said: "Whichever woman married without the permission of her Wali her marriage is invalid, her marriage is invalid, her marriage is invalid. If he entered into her, then the Mahr is for her in lieu of what he enjoyed from her private part. If they disagree, then the Sultan is the Wali for one who has no Wali." [At-Tirmithi, Hadith No.1102]. The Prophet (PBUH) also said: "There is no marriage without a guardian and two honorable witnesses." Related in [Al-Mo`jam Al-Basit for At-Tabarani, pp.6366]. Registration of the marriage contract at Islamic court is necessary for the preservation of rights and failing to do so is punishable by Jordanian Law. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best
Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?
When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).
