Is the `Iddah (waiting period) of the divorced effective from the time the divorce took place, or from the time of registering it at the court?
It is considered effective from the very moment her divorce took place, but not from the time of registering it at the court. And Allah Knows Best.
My husband wanted to sell a piece of land that was his own, but his father insisted that he transfer the land in his (the father’s) name so that he could sell it at a higher price. Then, my husband and his father would split the price. After my father-in-law sold the land, he denied everything and refused to acknowledge my husband’s right. My father-in-law passed away a year ago, and my husband’s brothers divided the inheritance, refusing to acknowledge that this land was a trust held by their father for my husband until it was sold. Are they sinful for knowingly denying that the land belongs to my husband, and what is the ruling on praying against them?
All perfect praise be to Alalh, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
Among the rights of the deceased upon their heirs are: preparing them for burial at death, settling their debts, returning people’s rights to them, executing their will, and then dividing their estate. What was mentioned in the question falls under the rights of others, even if they are among the heirs, and the deceased is not absolved of it unless it is returned to its rightful owners. This is because Allah, Almighty, forbids consuming others' wealth/properties unjustly. However, do not give up on seeking a solution by involving righteous and well - respected individuals who may have influence over them, in the hope that Allah guides them to goodness and correctness. As for supplicating against them, the prayer of the oppressed is not rejected, even if the oppressed person is not a Muslim. And Allah knows best.
What should a person, who delayed making up missed fasts of last Ramadan due to the continuance of the same excuse, do?
It is permissible for one, whose excuse for not making up missed fasts of last Ramadhaan has continued, to delay fasting until the excuse ceases to exist, and he is considered neither sinful, nor obligated to pay a ransom. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for the person who wants to travel from the United Arab Emirates to Jordan during the daytime in Ramadan to break his fast before leaving his country; knowing that he had embarked on journey half an hour after dawn?
Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds.
The person who made the intention to embark on journey after dawn must observe fast for that day, because it became an obligation on him before engaging on journey. However, if he experienced unbearable hardship while on travel, then he is permitted to break his fast, but he must make up for the missed day. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
