Announcement of the Passing of the Esteemed Sheikh Kamel Khatatbeh

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Summarized Fatawaa

If a father stops his daughter from getting married, is it permissible for her to conclude the marriage contract herself?

It is permissible for the father to stop his daughter from getting married if there was a lawful reason for that, and she isn`t allowed to conclude the marriage contract without her guardian. However, if her father denied her right in getting married for an unlawful reason, then she should go to court.

A man has married a second wife and deprived the first from provision and overnight stay. He spent most of his time and wealth on his second wife. After sometime, the latter got sick and was diagnosed with breast cancer, which made him forsake her in bed and return to his first wife. What is the position of Sharia on this?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

It is forbidden for a woman to forsake her husband in bed without a lawful excuse since this is one of the mutual rights of spouses. When the wife abstains from making love to her husband without a lawful excuse, she is considered sinful. This is because the Prophet (PBUH) said: "If a woman spends the night deserting her husband's bed (does not sleep with him), then the angels send their curses on her till she comes back (to her husband)." [Agreed upon]. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

What is the ruling on performing Umrah after the latest expansion of the Mas`aa (the passage between As-Safa and Al-Marwah), is it permissible, or not?

Yes, it is permissible to perform Umrah after the latest expansion of the Sa`y area since making Sa`y between As-Safa and Al- Marwah is already observed. And Allah Knows Best.

Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?

When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).

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Announcement of the Passing of the Esteemed Sheikh Kamel Khatatbeh

Author : The General Iftaa` Department

Date Added : 28-08-2023

Announcement of the Passing of the Esteemed Sheikh Kamel Khatatbeh

The General Iftaa Department, represented by His Eminence the Grand Mufti Sheikh Abdulkarim Al-Khasawneh, and His Excellency the Secretary-General Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalaileh, along with the esteemed Muftis, researchers, and administrators, mourn the passing of the honorable Sheikh Kamel Khatatbeh, the Mufti of Ajloun Governorate. They extend their deepest condolences to the Khatatbeh clan in general and to the family of the deceased in particular. They pray to Allah Almighty to replace the deceased with a better abode than his, a better family than his, better neighbors than his, and to grant him a place in His spacious gardens.

Indeed, to Allah we belong and to Him we shall return.

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is performing Umrah an obligation for who is capable. Is he accountable for not performing it in this case?

Umrah is an obligation once in a lifetime for every Muslim. When physical and financial ability is present, it is preferable to perform Umrah, as well as Hajj. If one can afford to perform Umrah but not Hajj, then they should begin with Umrah, especially since Hajj nowadays is not accessible to everyone who wishes to perform it. In contrast, Umrah is more open and easier to undertake. And Allah knows best.

Is washing both openings (Istinjaa`) a must before every ablution?

Washing the front and back openings (Istinjaa`) is a must in case they have an impurity, but if they do not, there is no need for that, and Istinjaa` is not a condition for the validity of ablution.

Is Zakah (obligatory charity) due on the money saved for marriage?

Zakah is due on the money saved for marriage if it reached the Nissab (minimum amount liable for Zakah), and a whole lunar year had lapsed over possessing it.

Is it permissible to say: "O Allah, by the status of the saints and the righteous, and our master Muhammad, peace be upon him, grant us the ability to reach Ramadan"?

What is mentiond by the righteous predecessors that they used to say: "O Allah bless us in Shaba'an and Rajab and give us the ability to reach Ramadan." [Shoa'ab Al-Iman/vol.3/pp.375]. And Allah Knows Best.