My husband wanted to sell a piece of land that was his own, but his father insisted that he transfer the land in his (the father’s) name so that he could sell it at a higher price. Then, my husband and his father would split the price. After my father-in-law sold the land, he denied everything and refused to acknowledge my husband’s right. My father-in-law passed away a year ago, and my husband’s brothers divided the inheritance, refusing to acknowledge that this land was a trust held by their father for my husband until it was sold. Are they sinful for knowingly denying that the land belongs to my husband, and what is the ruling on praying against them?
All perfect praise be to Alalh, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
Among the rights of the deceased upon their heirs are: preparing them for burial at death, settling their debts, returning people’s rights to them, executing their will, and then dividing their estate. What was mentioned in the question falls under the rights of others, even if they are among the heirs, and the deceased is not absolved of it unless it is returned to its rightful owners. This is because Allah, Almighty, forbids consuming others' wealth/properties unjustly. However, do not give up on seeking a solution by involving righteous and well - respected individuals who may have influence over them, in the hope that Allah guides them to goodness and correctness. As for supplicating against them, the prayer of the oppressed is not rejected, even if the oppressed person is not a Muslim. And Allah knows best.
What is the ruling on not fulfilling a vow?
A vow is a commitment towards Allah, The Almighty, and so, it should be observed as much as possible, and it is impermissible to take it lightly. Allah, The Exalted, Says –in commending the believers (What means): "(Because) they perform the vow and fear a day whereof the evil is wide-spreading." [Al-Insan/7].
During Ramadan, a man had sexual intercourse with his wife. What is the expiation for that? And is he permitted to pay the expiation?
If a man has intercourse with his wife during the daytime in Ramadan, he must make up for that day and offer expiation. The expiation is fasting for two consecutive months. If he is unable to do so, he must feed sixty needy people. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible to use the term 'Al-Jalalah' (Majesty) for anyone other than Allah, The Exalted?
In the Arabic language, a man of dignity and reverence is described as 'Jaleel' (noble), and similarly, an elder or a woman of dignity may be described as 'Jaleelah'. In such contexts, one may use the title 'His Majesty' or 'Her Majesty.' However, the Majesty of Allah, The Exalted, is unlike the majesty of humans, just as His hearing is not like our hearing, and His sight is not like our sight. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
