Is Zakah (obligatory charity) obligatory on indebted merchant?
Debt doesn`t abrogate the dueness of Zakah, thus a debtor who has money, articles of merchandise, or other Zakah funds at his disposal should pay their Zakah.
What is the ruling on swearing an oath by the Prophet ﷺ, and does such an oath take effect according to Imām Aḥmad ibn Ḥanbal, requiring expiation upon its breach?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Swearing an oath by a created being is disliked (makrūh) in our Shāfiʿī school. Shaykh al-Islām Imām al-Nawawī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states: "Swearing by a created being is disliked — such as swearing by the Prophet, the Kaʿbah, Jibrīl, the Companions, or the Prophet's family. Al-Shāfiʿī, may Allah have mercy upon him, said: 'I fear that swearing by other than Allah the Almighty may constitute an act of disobedience.' The scholars of the school explained this to mean: that is, something forbidden and sinful — indicating that he had some hesitation in the matter. Al-Imām stated: the established position of the school is that it is categorically not forbidden, but rather disliked. Furthermore, whoever swears by a created being, his oath does not take effect and no expiation (kaffārah) is required if he breaks it." [Rawḍat al-Ṭālibīn wa ʿUmdat al-Muftīn, Vol. 11/P.6]
According to the Ḥanbalī school, however, expiation becomes obligatory upon one who swears by our master the Prophet ﷺ and then breaks his oath. Imām al-Bahūtī al-Ḥanbalī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states: "No expiation is required for swearing by other than Allah the Almighty, even if the oath is broken — because expiation was made obligatory for swearing by Allah and His attributes, out of reverence for His names, and nothing else is equal to Him in this regard... except in the case of swearing by our Prophet Muḥammad ﷺ, for expiation becomes obligatory when one swears by him and then breaks the oath. This was explicitly stated in the narration of Abū Ṭālib, because he is one of the two conditions of the two testimonies of faith by which a disbeliever becomes a Muslim. Ibn ʿAqīl held the view that swearing by any of the other prophets, peace and blessings be upon them all, carries the same ruling." [Sharḥ Muntahā al-Irādāt, Vol. 3/P.441]. And Allah the Almighty knows best.
What is the ruling on having an intention (Niyyah) for every prayer?
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
Intention (Niyyah) is a pillar (Rukn) without which the prayer is not valid. The worshiper must have an intention for every prayer, meaning they must consciously intend the act of worship they are performing. Its timing must coincide with the opening Takbir (Takbirat al-Ihram). It is not a requirement to utter it verbally; rather, doing so is considered a recommended Sunnah. There are three levels of intention:
1-If the prayer is obligatory (Fard): It is mandatory to include the Intent (to pray), the Specification (which prayer, e.g., 'Asr), and the Obligation (recognizing it as a Fard). For example, one should bring to mind or say: 'I intend to pray the Fard of 'Asr.'
2-If it is a voluntary prayer restricted by a specific time or cause (Sunnah Muqayyadah): It is mandatory to include the Intent and the Specification. For example: 'I intend to pray the Sunnah before Zuhr' or 'I intend to pray Duha.'
3-If it is an absolute voluntary prayer (Nafl Mutlaq): It is sufficient to simply have the Intent to pray. For example: 'I intend to pray.'
And Allah the Exalted knows best.
Is it permissible for a mother to stop her daughter from marrying a respectable, God-fearing young man because he isn't college/university graduate?
It is impermissible to deny a woman her right in getting married except for a lawful reason, and problems can be solved through dialogue. However, she can file a suit in order for the judge to have a say in that regard.
