It was found out that a man divorced his wife for the third time in 2005, but they continued cohabiting as man and wife. However, when they realized that what they were doing was unlawful, they came the Iftaa` Department in 2009 and were told that they can`t be together. What is the position of Sharia on this couple?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Her Iddah* period starts after the third divorce. As for the continued cohabitation, it is unlawful because being ignorant about the rulings of Sharia while in Dar Al-Islam* is no valid excuse. If a baby came as the fruit of this unlawful consummation of marriage, then a judge of Sharia has the final say in this regard because lineage is a serious matter. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* ʿIddah: a specified period of time that must elapse before a Muslim widow or divorcee may legitimately remarry. The Qurʾān (Sura,2/verse,228) prescribes that a menstruating woman have three monthly periods before contracting a new marriage; the required delay for a nonmenstruating woman is three lunar months.
* Dar Al-Islam: designates a territory where Muslims are free to practice their religion, though this often implies the implementation of Islamic law, whereas Dar al-Harb represents those lands ruled by non-believers
A man married a woman at the Islamic Centre in Brussels through a regular marriage contract. However, the husband left her for two years now and never provided her with financial support. Currently, she is staying in Amman, Jordan, and wants to remarry. Is her first marriage considered void and what should she do to remarry lawfully?
All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds; may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
This issue is within the jurisdiction of the Islamic courts and they have the final say regarding the dissolution of the first marriage contract if there is valid ground for that. Therefore, her first marriage remains valid unless a court decision says otherwise. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
I work in an accounting and auditing office, and among the clients of the office are restaurants, hotels, and supermarkets that sell alcohol. Our work is limited to collecting invoices, whether purchases, sales, or expenses, and recording them in daily books. We also review income and sales taxes on behalf of these clients.
You are more knowledgeable about the nature of your work. If you see it as assisting in wrongdoing, then it is forbidden, as Allah The Exalted Says (What means): "And cooperate in righteousness and piety, but do not cooperate in sin and aggression" [Al-Ma’idah/2]. However, if your work is merely documenting the reality, then I hope there is no sin upon you. The the pious predecessors (Salaf) used to take the tithe from the traders of the People of the Book, even if it included alcohol, after knowing the value of their goods. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a woman whose menses exceeded (15) days to pray, fast and do what was prohibited on her to do during the latter period?
If the menses exceeded 15 days then it is deemed menstruation, and in this case she is obliged to pray and fast and to do what was impermissible for her to do during the latter period. In addition, she is obliged to make an ablution for each obligatory prayer after it's due time and making sure that impuity is removed. Finally, your menstruation period is over (Questioner) simlar to your menstruation in the previos month.
