Is Zakah (obligatory charity) due on the Zakah money received by a poor person, and reached a Nissab (minimum amount liable for Zakah), and a whole lunar year had lapsed over having it in his possession?
Yes, the poor who possessed a Nissab for a whole lunar year is obliged to pay the Zakah due on that money even if it was given to him as a Zakah money in the first place. And Allah Knows Best.
We collect funds from mosques and other sources, saying: "For the poor, the needy, widows, orphans, and those who do not beg insistently." After paying the stipends of the families registered with the Zakat Committee, an amount exceeding 6,000 dinars remained. Is it permissible for me to save it for upcoming months when I may not be able to collect the stipends?
These funds are received by the committee as representatives of the zakat payers to deliver zakat to those entitled to it. It is well-known that delaying zakat while being able to pay it is not permissible. Imam Al-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said: "Zakat must be paid immediately if one is able to do so, by the presence of wealth and the eligible categories." [Al-Minhaj] Therefore, the committee must distribute the zakat to the eligible recipients without installment payments or using it to purchase material goods for them, as the committee does not have authority over the poor to allocate it in this way. And Allah Knows Best.
By slip of the tongue, my son cursed Allah. It is worth pointing that he has concluded his marriage contract recently, but haven`t consummated the marriage. What is the position of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to AllahThe Lord of The Worlds and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
This person must return to the fold of Islam by uttering the two testimonies of faith and making repentance to Allah from all acts that lead to disbelief. Also, he must make a new marriage contract because the old one was dissolved after he had committed this act of disbelief. Moreover, since there is no waiting period for his wife, then she is in state of Talaq ba`en baynona Soghra (Minor irrevocable divorce); consequently, she can get back to him only by a new marriage contract. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
A woman is asking for divorce although she is still breastfeeding. What is the Islamic ruling on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It unlawful for a woman to seek divorce without a valid Sharia excuse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
