I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Does ill-gotten money hinder the answering of the Du`a (supplication) and the means of subsistence?
Sins hinder the answering of the Du`a, and deprive the sinner from means of subsistence; whereas, acts of obedience facilitate making a living. Allah, The Almighty, Says (What means) : "And for those who fear God, He (ever) prepares a way out. And He provides for him from (sources) he never could imagine." [At-Talaq/2-3].
I work in a government institution that gives an additional three dinars per hour I work. The manager combines students into a single session because attendance is low, and the material taught to all groups is the same. I am paid for two hours, although I actually taught only one session, noting that my transportation costs one and a half dinars. What is the ruling?
The only amount you are permitted to take/have is for one hour work. And Allah Knows Best.
My father passed away before my grandfather. Am I entitled to any share of my grandfather`s inheritance?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
According to Islamic courts, you are entitled to what is called obligatory bequest (The distribution of estate to grandchildren who has either lost a parent before the death of the grandparents). Therefore, if your grandfather left such bequest for you, then take that share or else it is more prudent to take nothing. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
