What is the Iddah period upon death of husband? What is the ruling when the woman observing Iddah after death of husband leaves her home to visit relatives although her Iddah hasn`t ended? What is the ruling on her wearing gold during Iddah period?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
For a woman whose husband has died, the 'Iddah* is four months and ten days after the death of her husband. If a woman is pregnant, the 'Iddah lasts until she gives birth. Moreover, she has to mourn, not wear gold, perfume nor saffron-colored garment. The evidence on this is that The Prophet (PBUH) said: "It is not lawful for a Muslim woman who believes in Allah and the Last Day to mourn for more than three days, except for her husband, for whom she should mourn for four months and ten days." [Agreed upon]. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
*The iddah is a waiting period that a Muslim woman observes after the death of her husband or after a divorce. The Quran says: For those men who die amongst you and leave behind wives, they (the wives) must confine themselves (spend iddah) for four months and ten days.
I suffer from chronic asthma which requires ventoline inhale; which is an air causes the risperatory track/airways to expand. Am I permited to use it during the daylight of Ramadan? And does break one's fast? Noting that I can't go an entire day without using it?
Taking inhaler through the mouth or the nose breaks one's fast, because it is meant to reach the lungs which are part of the coelom. Therefore, whosoever use inhalers for couple of days is obliged to preserve his fasting and make up that day later. As for the ones the ones who need to use it every days are obliged to preserve his fast and feed a poor per day and the cost of feeding one poor is estimated (60) piasters for the year (1421AH). And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a religious young Muslim woman to love a young man for Allah`s sakes?
Such love between the two sexes is from the devil`s evil suggestions, and a pure Muslim woman should beware of such a matter, and she shouldn`t mix with non-Mahrams (Marriageable ).
Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?
When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).