Is it permissible to offer one Rak`ah in Witr prayer?
The minimum of Witr (An odd number prayer performed between Isha`a and Fajr) prayer is one Rak`ah, and the maximum is eleven, but the minimum of its complete form is three, and it is permissible to offer one only.
Is it permissible for the guardian, or the father of the child to hit the latter in order to teach him/her good manners?
It is permissible for the guardian to hit his/her child for teaching them good manners once they become ten years old provided that it is done mildly, harmlessly and without intimidation. Actually, such punishment is to be employed gradually i.e. after: asking, warning, and scolding. As for the teacher, he isn`t allowed to hit the student unless the latter`s father approves of it, and it is done according to necessity without intimidation, or harm.
I had my menstrual period at the beginning of Ramadan for six days, then it ended and I became pure. After four days, I started noticing some blood again, which has lasted for two days now, but it is not as heavy as menstrual blood. Is this blood considered menstrual blood, and what is the ruling regarding my prayers, fasting, and reading the Quran during this period?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad.
The minimum duration of menstruation is one day and one night, and its maximum is fifteen days. Any blood beyond this period is considered irregular bleeding (Istihada). Since the bleeding did not exceed fifteen days, it is considered menstrual blood within the regular cycle. Therefore, you should not pray or fast until the bleeding stops and the signs of purity appear. If the bleeding stops before fifteen days from when it first started, then all the blood you saw is considered menstrual blood, and you must make up the fasts, but not the prayers. If it exceeds fifteen days, then the first six days are menstrual blood, and the blood that follows is considered irregular bleeding. Your prayers and fasting are valid, and there is no issue with them. And Allah Knows Best."
*This answer was updated on [18/5/2023].
If someone bought a car from an interest-based bank and then sold it to another person, does the second person bear any sin if they use the car's price to pay the installments owed to the bank?
When the buyer purchased the car, it became their property, and the price became their responsibility. The bank acts as the seller's agent for receiving the payment. Therefore, there is no sin on the second buyer, God willing, as long as the bank does not impose an increase in the amount if a payment is delayed. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
