Is a woman`s voice 'Awrah even when praising the Prophet (PBUH) via satellite channels?
Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
The Sharia term 'Awrah has two meanings:-
First: `Awrah that invalidates prayer when uncovered, and in this sense a woman`s voice isn`t considered `awrah. Second: `Awrah that causes men to be tempted by women and vice versa. Moreover, if a woman`s voice is soft or alluring, then it is forbidden for her to speak deliberately before strange men. This is because Almighty Allah Says (What means): "O ye wives of the Prophet! Ye are not like any other women. If ye keep your duty (to Allah), then be not soft of speech, lest he in whose heart is a disease aspire (to you), but utter customary speech." [Al-Ahzab/32]. However, a man should avoid listening whatever incites his desires. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
What should a worshiper who has forgotten a pillar of prayer do?
If he/she remembered the forgotten pillar before offering it in the following Rakah (unit of prayer), then he/she should offer it, and continue the prayer, then offer Sujood As-Sahw (Prostration of forgetfulness) at the end of it. But, if he/she remembered that forgotten pillar after having offered it in the following Rakah, then he/she should offer a new Rakah in its (the one in which he forgot a pillar) place, and offer Sujood As-Sahw.
What is the ruling on a Muslim who slaughters an animal while being in a state of Janabah (ritual impurity)?
All Perfect Praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upo all of his family and companions.
Slaughtering is permissible for the ritually impure man and the menstruating woman because ritual purity isn`t a condition for the validity of the slaughtering. Moreover, it is permissible for the uncircumcised person to do the slaughtering as well. And Allah The Almighy Knows Best.
Is it permissible for the guardian, or the father of the child to hit the latter in order to teach him/her good manners?
It is permissible for the guardian to hit his/her child for teaching them good manners once they become ten years old provided that it is done mildly, harmlessly and without intimidation. Actually, such punishment is to be employed gradually i.e. after: asking, warning, and scolding. As for the teacher, he isn`t allowed to hit the student unless the latter`s father approves of it, and it is done according to necessity without intimidation, or harm.
