My husband told me that he concluded our marriage with a fake name that belongs to another person, because he was sentenced. Nowadays, he recieved an ID, passport and birth certificate with the his current name. What is the ruling on being married to him?
Praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions. As regards being married to the person mentioned in your question: The marriage is valid so long as he was the same person your guardian concluded the marriage with, even if he changed his name i.e. if your marriage contract was concluded with the same person, since what counts regarding marriage is the persons not names. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a man to lie to his wife? Is it permissible for a man to abandon his wife to work in Saudi Arabia, without her approval, although he is wealthy?
All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds; may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
The Messenger of Allah commanded men to treat women kindly, so marital problems should be solved through understanding, and whatever causes harm to a woman is forbidden. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it permissible for the heirs of the person who caused the accident (The Killer) to fast (The intended as an expiation for unintentional killing) on his behalf if the latter died in the crash?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
One who dies while liable for obligatory fast, his/her guardians have the choice to either fast on his/her behalf or feed one poor Muslim for each day of missed fast. This applies to Ramadan and other obligatory fast, and since expiatory fast is obligatory, feeding a poor person for each missed day or fasting on behalf of the deceased is obligatory as well. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it true that whatever is dry is pure even if there was impurity on it?
The impure material object does not soil (make impure) anything else unless the impurity is wet and transferable. But, if the impurity is dry or non-transferable, then there is no problem. Fuqaha has stated that: There is no disagreement between Muslim scholars that when a dry impurity touches something dry it does not make the latter impure.
