Is it permissible for the woman who is observing Iddah after her husband`s death to sit with her daughter`s suitor, although their marriage contract hasn`t been concluded yet?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
A suitor who hasn`t concluded the marriage contract isn`t a Mahram*, so he must be treated as such. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* The period a woman must observe after the death of her husband or after a divorce, during which she may not marry another man.
* In Islam, a mahram is a member of one's family with whom marriage would be considered haram, concealment purdah, or concealment of the body with hijab, is not obligatory; and with whom, if he is an adult male, she may be escorted during a journey, although an escort may not be obligatory.
What is the ruling on a person who isn`t able to fast due to old age, or an incurable disease?
Paying the ransom is due on such a person, and that is giving a Mud (600 grams) of wheat, or rice, or the price of that amount to a needy Muslim for each missed fasting day. And Allah Knows Best.
Is a woman`s voice 'Awrah even when praising the Prophet (PBUH) via satellite channels?
Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
The Sharia term 'Awrah has two meanings:-
First: `Awrah that invalidates prayer when uncovered, and in this sense a woman`s voice isn`t considered `awrah. Second: `Awrah that causes men to be tempted by women and vice versa. Moreover, if a woman`s voice is soft or alluring, then it is forbidden for her to speak deliberately before strange men. This is because Almighty Allah Says (What means): "O ye wives of the Prophet! Ye are not like any other women. If ye keep your duty (to Allah), then be not soft of speech, lest he in whose heart is a disease aspire (to you), but utter customary speech." [Al-Ahzab/32]. However, a man should avoid listening whatever incites his desires. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it permissible to pay the Zakah (obligatory charity) for settling the debt of a deceased relative?
It is impermissible to pay the Zakah for settling the debt of the deceased since Zakah is paid to eligible recipients who are alive. As for the debts of the deceased, they are to be settled from the estate before dividing it amongst the heirs, but if the deceased didn`t leave an estate, then it is desirable for his/her heirs to settle those debts if they can afford them. And Allah Knows Best.
