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The Iftaa` Department Refrains from Interfering in the Judiciary
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 23-03-2023

The Iftaa` Department Refrains from Interfering in the Judiciary

 

 

Some media reported that the General Iftaa` Department refrained from issuing a Fatwa on the inadmissibility of the testimony of the woman who doesn`t wear Hijab.

 

In response to this claim, the Department wishes to make clear that the requested Fatwa is related to a case pending before the court. Therefore, it refrained from issuing that Fatwa to ensure the impartiality and independence of the judiciary system, the integrity of its provisions and non-interference in its affairs, as provided for in the legislations in force. This is to achieve justice and preserve the rights of the litigants.

 

The Department asserts that non-interference in cases pending before the court is its adopted approach since its establishment to safeguard the integrity of litigation from any external influences.

 

Only Allah leads to prosperity and guides to the straight path•

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Summarized Fatawaa

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Is it permissible for a young lady to wear a short skirt, which is above her knee, over pants?

All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah and that Muhammad, sallallahu ‘alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.
In Islam, it isn`t permissible for a woman to wear garment revealing her beautiful shape and arousing men`s sexual desire. This is whether the garment is transparent or skin-tight showing the size of her private parts. A Muslim woman`s garment must be loose and not revealing since she will be accountable for this before Allah The Almighty on the Day of Judgement. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best. 

Is the one who gives up on marriage because he can`t afford it considered sinful?

Marriage is desirable, but one who can`t afford it isn`t considered sinful. However, he should supplicate to Allah, and seek His forgiveness.

What is the ruling o associations (Whereas a person who have money buys a commodity for a person and  and gets a profit on it)?

It is permissible for a person to buy a commodity for someone's else and have a profit/loss on it