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Oaths: Questions & Answers
Author : Dr. Hassan Abu_Arqoub
Date Added : 30-11-2022

 

Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

 

Oaths and their Kaffara (atonement) are most needed in people`s daily life; therefore, I have adapted examples on this subject from Al-Shirbini`s book [Moghni Al-Mohtaj].

Definition:

An oath is swearing by Allah or any of His attributes or names.

What makes an oath effective?

An oath doesn`t become effective unless the person swears by Allah or any of His attributes. For example, (By Allah) (Wallah) or by the Lord of the Worlds (Wa Rab Al-Alameen).

 

What is the ruling on swearing by other than Allah?

 

It is disliked to swear by other than Allah. The evidence on this is that Ibn 'Umar (May Allah be pleased with them) said: The Prophet (PBUH) said, "Allah has prohibited you from taking an oath by your fathers. He who must take an oath, may do so by swearing in the Name of Allah or he should remain silent." [Agreed upon].

 

What did the Prophet (PBUH) mean by {He, who swears by anyone or anything other than Allah, has indeed committed an act of Kufr or Shirk "}?

 

First: One who swears by anyone or anything other than Allah has indeed committed an act similar to that of the infidels. This Hadith discourages such ugly acts.

 

Second: One who believes that what he had sworn by is as glorified as Allah has committed Kufr and Shirk.

 

Is the oath of one who said (By the right of Allah) considered effective?

 

If the swearer intended (By the right of Allah) as an oath, then it is definitely an oath, and the same is true if he made it unconditional, without intention. This is because this phrase is often used in oaths, so it is considered as such.

 

Is the oath of the one who swears by the Quran considered effective?

 

Swearing by the Glorious Quran is considered an oath because the Quran is the word of Allah, and His word is one of His attributes. He The Almighty Says (What means): "Of some apostles We have already told thee the story; of others We have not;- and to Moses God spoke direct;-" [An-Nisaa`/164]. We have stated earlier that an oath becomes effective when any of Allah`s attributes is used.

 

If a person said: (By Allah, I will do so and so), is his oath considered effective?

 

Using one of the letters of oath (Qasam/Yameen), such as (Baa`, Wawo, or Taa`), render an oath effective, even without making the intention of an oath. Be that in the nominative or accusative.

 

If a person said: (I swear to you by Allah) or (I ask you by Allah to do so and so), is this oath considered effective and who is liable for it?

 

If the person taking the oath intended it as such then it is considered an oath. In addition, the addressee is encouraged to fulfill that oath if it doesn`t involve anything prohibited or disliked. If the addressee didn`t fulfill it, then the person who took it is liable for atonement. However, If his intention is/isn`t to make the addressee the one swearing by Allah; rather, he meant Allah`s intercession or made the oath unconditional, then this isn`t considered an oath, and neither the person taking the oath nor the addressee is liable for the Kaffara of breaking an oath.

 

What is the ruling on one who says (If I do so and so, then I`m a Jew or a Christian)?

 

First: This isn`t considered an oath because neither Allah`s name nor any of His attributes is mentioned.

 

Second: The person taking it isn`t liable for Kaffara.

 

Third: Swearing by such words is a sin and uttering them is prohibited.

 

Fourth: All the above is in case the person is taking the oath (If I do so and so, then I`m a Jew or a Christian) to distance themselves from something. However, if he meant that he accepts to be a Jew or something within that meaning, then he is immediately considered a Kafir (Infidel).

 

What is the ruling if the person intended to take an oath to do something but said something else by mistake?

 

This is considered a false oath and no Kaffara is due on him.

 

What is the ruling if a person entered and his friend was lying down and the latter wanted to stand for him out of respect, but the former said: "By Allah, don`t stand" but he stood?

 

This is considered a false oath and no Kaffara is due on him.

 

What is the ruling when a person says: "By Allah, I have/haven`t done this or that" and was intentionally lying?

 

This is perjury oath that immerses its taker in sin or into Hell, and it is among the major sins and a Kaffara must be paid.

 

What is the ruling on the person who takes an oath to leave a duty/obligation or do something forbidden?

 

One who takes an oath to leave a religious obligation, such as saying: (I swear by Allah I won`t pray Fajir) or swore by Allah to commit what is forbidden, such as saying: (I swear by Allah I will accept bribe), is disobedient to Allah in both forms. Therefore, he must break that oath by performing the obligation and refraining from the forbidden, in addition to paying a Kaffara, as not doing so makes him in state of disobedience to Allah.

 

What is the Kaffara for an oath and why is it an obligation?

 

The Kaffara for an oath is freeing a slave, feeding ten poor persons or clothing them of the same standard you do for yourself. If you can`t, then you should fast three days, and it isn`t conditioned that they be fasted successively. As for the reason the Kaffara is an obligation, it is for both the oath and the breaking of the oath.

 

Is it permissible to offer Kaffara before breaking the oath?

 

Is it permissible for the person to offer Kaffara (freeing a slave, feeding ten poor persons or clothing them of the same standard you do for yourself) before breaking his oath. As for fasting, it can`t be offered before breaking the oath.

For example, if he said: (By Allah I won`t enter the house of my maternal aunt), but later wanted to enter to maintain ties of kinship, then he is allowed to feed or clothe ten poor persons before her enters her house. He is also allowed to feed or clothe ten poor persons after her enters her house. However, if he can`t afford the food or the clothing, then he can`t fast until after her enters her house and breaks his oath.

 

What food and clothing?

 

One mud (600 gr. of wheat or rice) for each poor person. According to the Hanafi school of thought, it is permissible to give the monetary value of this mud (60 piasters for each poor person). As for the clothing, it could be shirts, trousers, garment, Thawb, and it isn`t conditioned that the sizeof the garment of suits the recipient.

 

What is the ruling when one says (By Allah I won`t put on these two garments), but wore one? Or said: (By Allah I won`t talk to these two men), but spoke to one of them?

 

The oath isn`t broken if the person taking it wore one garment or spoke to one man, because his oath is intended for both, but that wasn`t the case since he neither wore both garments nor spoke to both men.

 

What is the ruling on the person who said: (By Allah I will neither wear this garment nor that) or (By Allah I will neither speak to this man nor that)?

 

The oath is broken by wearing any of the garments or speaking to any of the men because the oath taker repeated the negation letter (لا), and this repetition made each act intended by the oath.

 

What is the ruling on the person who said: (By Allah I will eat these two loaves of bread) or (By Allah I will speak to these two men)?

 

If he ate the two loaves or spoke to the two men, his oath isn`t broken. However, if he ate a loaf or spoke to one man, then his oath is broken.

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Does sacrificing one sheep avail for the entire household?

In the Name of Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
Offering an Udhiyah (sacrificial offering) is a communal Sunnah (Sunnah Kifayah) for members of the same household, provided that their financial maintenance is undertaken by a single provider. By "communal Sunnah," we mean that when one person performs it, the religious recommendation is fulfilled on behalf of the entire household, though the spiritual reward itself belongs uniquely to the one who offered it.
 
Therefore, if any member of the household performs the sacrifice—even if it is someone who is not legally responsible for the household's expenses, such as the wife or one of the children—the recommendation is fulfilled for everyone in that home. However, the reward does not automatically extend to the other members unless the person offering the sacrifice explicitly intends to share the reward with them—similar to how performing a funeral prayer (Janazah) fulfills the communal obligation for everyone, yet the specific reward is earned by those who actually prayed.
 
Additionally, a single sacrifice is sufficient for a man who is married to more than one wife. And Allah the Almighty Knows Best.

What is the ruling on one who vows to fast a specific or non-specific year? Are the two Eids, the days of Tashreeq, Ramadan, and the days of menstruation and postnatal bleeding included in them? And do these days break the consecutiveness if it was intended?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
If someone makes a vow (Nadr) to fast a specific, designated year, this vow does not include the days of Eid, the days of Tashreeq (the three days following Eid al-Adha), Ramadan, or the days of menstruation (Hayd) and postnatal bleeding (Nifas). Furthermore, there is no requirement to make up (Qada) these specific days.
 
However, if someone vows to fast a year that is not specifically designated (i.e., any twelve-month period) and stipulates that the fasting must be consecutive, they are bound by that condition. They must not fast on the days of Eid, during Ramadan, or during menstruation, but they are required to make up these days afterward—with the exception of the days of menstruation and postnatal bleeding, which do not need to be made up.
 
It is stated in Hashiyat al-Bajuri ‘ala Sharh Ibn Qasim ({Vol.2/P.606): 'If one vows to fast a specific year, the Eid, Tashreeq, Ramadan, and days of menstruation or postnatal bleeding are not included. This is because Ramadan does not accept any fast other than its own, and the others do not accept fasting at all. Therefore, they do not enter into the vow, and no makeup is required for them because they are legally excluded—contrary to Al-Rafi’i regarding menstruation and postnatal bleeding.
 
If one vows to fast a non-designated year: if they stipulated consecutiveness (Tatuabu’) in their vow, they must fulfill it; otherwise, they are not bound to it. Consecutiveness is not broken by the days that do not enter into the specific year vow (Eid, Tashreeq, Ramadan, menstruation, and postnatal bleeding). However, one must make up the days missed—excluding the time of menstruation and postnatal bleeding—immediately following the end of the year. As for the time of menstruation and postnatal bleeding, it is not made up, contrary to Ibn al-Rif’ah, who argued that it must be made up just like Ramadan.' And Allah the Exalted knows best.

Is it permissible to purchase the Udhiyah on installments?

It is permissible to purchase the sacrificial animal (uḍḥiyyah) on installments or by borrowing its price. However, it is not recommended for the poor to do so, because they are not required to offer a sacrifice, and Allah does not burden a soul beyond its capacity. If doing so would lead to negligence in providing for one's dependents (nafaqah wājibah), then giving precedence to obligatory maintenance over borrowing to buy the sacrifice is appropriate. This is based on the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him): "It is sufficient sin for a person to withhold food from those whom he is responsible to support."
 
Furthermore, the sacrifice is valid from one who has a debt, but it is preferable (awlā) to repay the debt first, especially if the debt is due immediately (ḥāll). And Allah Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible to eat from an Udhiyah slaughtered on behalf of a deceased person?

Praise be to Allah, and prayers and peace be upon our Master the Messenger of Allah.
 
It is permissible to eat from the sacrifice (uḍḥiyyah) that is offered on behalf of a deceased person. This is the madhhab (school of thought) of the Hanbalis. In this case, the heirs take the place of the deceased as if he were alive, with the same rights to eat from it, give it in charity, and offer it as a gift.
 
It is stated in Maṭālib Uli al-Nuhā (Vol.2/P.472): "Offering a sacrifice on behalf of a deceased person is better than offering one on behalf of a living person, because the deceased is unable (to perform deeds) and is in need of reward. It is to be treated like a sacrifice on behalf of a living person in terms of eating, giving charity, and giving gifts." And Allah Almighty knows best.

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