Clarification from Iftaa` Department

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What is the ruling of Islamic Law on opening an account in a commercial bank in order to deposit a sum and use it for personal purposes, such as transfers and electronic payments?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.

It is forbidden for a Muslim, if he has a choice, to open an account in an interest-based (ribawī) bank, even if the account earns no interest, because doing so assists in ribā, based on the saying of Allah the Exalted (which means): “And cooperate in righteousness and piety, but do not cooperate in sin and aggression.” [al-Māʾidah/2]

This is because such banks invest deposited funds in forbidden ribā-based transactions, and depositing with them is therefore a form of assisting them in what is unlawful. Assisting in what is unlawful is prohibited by the Sharīʿah. However, if there is a pressing need to open an account in an interest-based bank and it is not possible to open one in an Islamic bank, there is no objection to doing so.

The ruling on bank interest and the prizes distributed by interest-based banks was previously explained in Fatwa no. (471). And Allah Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible for a woman to perform the obligatory prayer immediately after the adhan and before the Iqamah is performed in the mosque?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.

Yes, it is permissible for a woman to perform the obligatory (Fard) prayer immediately after the Adhan (call to prayer) and before the Iqamah (call to commence prayer) is performed in the mosque. And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the ruling on eating or drinking during the first Adhan?

It is permissible to eat and drink during the first Adhan because it takes place before the break of dawn. The purpose of this Adhan is to notify Muslims of the approaching dawn so they can prepare to stop eating when they hear the second Adhan.

Does post-natal bleeding (Nifas) stop before forty days after childbirth?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.

Yes, post-natal bleeding (Nifas) can cease before the completion of forty days. If the bleeding stops completely and its return is not expected, the woman has attained ritual purity (Taharah), even if forty days have not yet passed. And Allah the Exalted knows best.

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Clarification from Iftaa` Department

Author : The General Iftaa' Department

Date Added : 08-09-2022

Clarification from Iftaa` Department

The General Iftaa` Department celebrates along with all Jordanians the Anniversary of the Royal Accession to the Throne and takes pride in all the gains achieved since the founding of the kingdom until now. It takes this opportunity to congratulate His Majesty King Abdullah II on the twentieth anniversary of his accession to the throne. In the meantime, it stresses that it is the duty of every citizen to preserve and take part in the advancement of our country at all levels.

Moreover, the Iftaa` Department confirms that it hasn`t recently issued a statement regarding patriotic songs and calls on media to avoid using the religion for unprofessional incitement during such significant national occasions.

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on wiping the head during ablution from behind a barrier like a headscarf (hijab)?

The obligation in ablution is to wipe some of the head; it is not a condition to wipe all of it. As for one who has a turban or headscarf on their head, it is permissible for them to wipe over it after wiping a part of their head in any place. This is easily done at the front of the head. This means the woman begins by wiping the front of her head from under the headscarf, then completes the wiping to the back of the head from over the headscarf. If the woman wipes over the headscarf on her head and the moisture reaches the scalp or some hair within the boundaries of the head, it suffices for wiping the head. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on deliberately breaking the fast while being capable of fasting?

Whoever intentionally breaks their fast in Ramadan without a valid excuse has committed a major sin and bears great guilt. They must repent, seek forgiveness, refrain from eating and drinking for the rest of the day, and make up for that day after Ramadan.

They have lost an immense reward, which cannot be compensated even by fasting an entire lifetime as a voluntary act, because an obligatory fast cannot be equaled by voluntary fasting.

If the fast was broken through sexual intercourse, the person must:

● Make up for the missed fast (qada), and

● Perform kaffarah by fasting two consecutive months.

● If they are unable to do so, they must feed sixty needy people.

Is it obligatory to have the intention for each day of fasting, or is one intention sufficient for the whole month?

The intention is obligatory for each day of Ramadan because each day is an independent act of worship separate from the others.

The intention must be made at night before the break of dawn, as the Prophetﷺ said: "Whoever does not intend fasting at night, there is no fast for him." [An-Nasa’i]

And he also said: "Whoever does not firmly resolve to fast before dawn, there is no fast for him." [At-Tirmidhi, Abu Dawood, and An-Nasa’i]

Whoever wakes up and eats Suhoor while mindful of fasting has made the intention. Likewise, one who firmly intends at any moment during the night to fast the next day has also fulfilled the intention.

Is it permissible for a wife to boycott (not to attend to his different needs) her husband?

It isn`t permissible for the woman to boycott her husband unless he is the reason behind that, and it is recommended that both spouses seek the advice of righteous people to make reconciliation.