Clarification from Iftaa` Department

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What is the ruling on a woman using contraception without her husband's knowledge if he is mistreating her?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.

It is not permissible for a woman to use any means of delaying pregnancy without her husband's knowledge, consent, and mutual agreement. This is because having children is a sharʿī right belonging to both spouses equally in Islamic law. Imām al-Māwardī, may Allah have mercy upon him, stated: "The right to a child from a free woman is shared between them both" — meaning between the two spouses. [al-Ḥāwī al-Kabīr, 9/320]

It is therefore not permissible for either spouse to make a unilateral decision regarding the prevention of pregnancy without the consent of the other. We advise both spouses to discuss the matter with wisdom and mutual respect, so as to resolve any disagreement and arrive at a suitable solution that serves the interests of them both. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

I broke my oath and am now obligated to pay the expiation for a broken oath (kaffārat al-yamīn). Would it be valid to fulfill this by inviting the poor and needy to a meal for them to eat from?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.

The expiation for a broken oath (kaffārat al-yamīn) is given to the poor (fuqarā') and needy (masākīn), and it must be given in the form of ownership (tamlīk) transferred to them of the required amount — namely, one mudd of the staple food of the locality, or its equivalent monetary value. It isn`t valid to invite the poor or needy to a meal prepared for them to eat from, as this does not constitute "ownership" (tamlīk) but merely "permission to partake" (ibāḥah).

Imam al-Shirbīnī (may Allah have mercy on him) said: "What is intended is that ownership be transferred to them; therefore, providing them with lunch or dinner [as a meal to eat from] isn`t valid." [Summarized from Mughnī al-Muhtāj,Vol. 5/P.50]. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it obligatory to have an intention (niyyah) for every prayer?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.

It is obligatory for the worshiper to have a specific intention (Niyyah) for every prayer, meaning they must consciously intend the act of worship they are performing. The intention is a pillar (Rukn) of the prayer, and the prayer is not valid without it. It is not a requirement to utter the intention verbally; rather, doing so is considered a recommended Sunnah. And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the ruling on a person who insists on praying in a specific spot and becomes angry if someone else prays there?

ruling on a person who persists in praying in a specific spot and becomes angry if someone else occupies it

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.

Our Master the Prophet ﷺ forbade a man from habitually claiming a specific spot in the mosque as a camel claims its place (to sit); scholars consider this to be among the disliked matters (Makruhat). It is therefore obligatory to advise this individual that whoever arrives at a spot first has the most right to it. And Allah the Exalted knows best.

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Clarification from Iftaa` Department

Author : The General Iftaa' Department

Date Added : 08-09-2022

Clarification from Iftaa` Department

The General Iftaa` Department celebrates along with all Jordanians the Anniversary of the Royal Accession to the Throne and takes pride in all the gains achieved since the founding of the kingdom until now. It takes this opportunity to congratulate His Majesty King Abdullah II on the twentieth anniversary of his accession to the throne. In the meantime, it stresses that it is the duty of every citizen to preserve and take part in the advancement of our country at all levels.

Moreover, the Iftaa` Department confirms that it hasn`t recently issued a statement regarding patriotic songs and calls on media to avoid using the religion for unprofessional incitement during such significant national occasions.

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it required to fast consecutively when making up missed fasts?

● It is preferable to fast consecutively when making up missed fasts if they were missed due to a valid excuse.

● However, if the fasts were missed without a valid excuse, then fasting consecutively is obligatory, because making up the missed fasts in this case must be done immediately.

Separating the makeup fasts goes against the obligation of immediacy, but if someone does so, their fasts will still be valid. However, they will be sinful for delaying without a valid reason.

What is the ruling on insulin injections?

Insulin injections do not break the fast because they are administered under the skin and do not reach the body cavity (jauf).

Is Zakah (obligatory charity) due on the Zakah money received by a poor person, and reached a Nissab (minimum amount liable for Zakah), and a whole lunar year had lapsed over having it in his possession?

Yes, the poor who possessed a Nissab for a whole lunar year is obliged to pay the Zakah due on that money even if it was given to him as a Zakah money in the first place. And Allah Knows Best.

What is the ruling on performing Tahajjud after the Witr?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.

It is permissible for one who has prayed the Witr to perform voluntary (Nafl) prayers after it. However, it is preferable for the Witr to be the final prayer of the night. Therefore, if a person is confident that they will wake up during the night for Tahajjud, it is recommended for them to delay the Witr until after the Tahajjud. Conversely, if one fears they may not wake up, they should perform the Witr before sleeping.

Al-Khatib al-Shirbini (may Allah have mercy on him) stated: 'It is not disliked (Makruh) to perform Tahajjud after the Witr, but it is not recommended to do so intentionally.' [Mughni al-Muhtaj, Vol. 1/P.454]. And Allah the Exalted knows best."