Articles

Clarification from Iftaa` Department
Author : The General Iftaa' Department
Date Added : 08-09-2022

Clarification from Iftaa` Department

 

The General Iftaa` Department celebrates along with all Jordanians the Anniversary of the Royal Accession to the Throne and takes pride in all the gains achieved since the founding of the kingdom until now. It takes this opportunity to congratulate His Majesty King Abdullah II on the twentieth anniversary of his accession to the throne. In the meantime, it stresses that it is the duty of every citizen to preserve and take part in the advancement of our country at all levels.

 

Moreover, the Iftaa` Department confirms that it hasn`t recently issued a statement regarding patriotic songs and calls on media to avoid using the religion for unprofessional incitement during such significant national occasions.

Article Number [ Previous | Next ]

Read for Author




Comments


Captcha


Warning: this window is not dedicated to receive religious questions, but to comment on topics published for the benefit of the site administrators—and not for publication. We are pleased to receive religious questions in the section "Send Your Question". So we apologize to readers for not answering any questions through this window of "Comments" for the sake of work organization. Thank you.




Summarized Fatawaa

Where should a woman following her husband or another man in prayer stand?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
If a single woman prays with a man—whether she is his wife or a non-mahram (Ajnabiyyah)—the Sunnah is for her to stand behind the Imam and be shielded by him. If the Imam is leading both a man and a woman, the man should stand to the Imam's right, and the woman should stand behind the male follower (Muqtadi). In this way, she is shielded from the Imam by the male follower and remains at a distance from the follower and his line of sight. And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on shaving body hair and clipping the nails for one who is in a state of major ritual impurity (*junub*)?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
It is recommended for one in a state of major ritual impurity (junub) not to remove anything from his body until after the ritual bath (ghusl). It is stated in Bushrā al-Karīm bi-Sharḥ Masāʾil al-Taʿlīm (p. 135): “It is recommended for one in a state of janābah and the like not to remove anything from his body until after ghusl, because the parts of the body return to him in the Hereafter, and he returns in a state of janābah, as a rebuke to him. Then it is removed from him, except for the original parts. It is said that every hair demands its due for its janābah.”
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Shabrāmallisī ʿalā Nihāyat al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.341): “If he wishes to combine shaving and the Friday ghusl, he should delay the shaving until after the ghusl if he is in a state of janābah, so that the ghusl removes its trace from the hair.” And Allah Almighty knows best.

Is a woman`s prayer considered invalid if non-Mahrams (marriageable men) saw her offering it?

A woman`s prayer isn`t invalidated if non-Mahrams saw her offering it, but she had better pray in isolation.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.