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Clarification from Iftaa` Department
Author : The General Iftaa' Department
Date Added : 08-09-2022

Clarification from Iftaa` Department

 

The General Iftaa` Department celebrates along with all Jordanians the Anniversary of the Royal Accession to the Throne and takes pride in all the gains achieved since the founding of the kingdom until now. It takes this opportunity to congratulate His Majesty King Abdullah II on the twentieth anniversary of his accession to the throne. In the meantime, it stresses that it is the duty of every citizen to preserve and take part in the advancement of our country at all levels.

 

Moreover, the Iftaa` Department confirms that it hasn`t recently issued a statement regarding patriotic songs and calls on media to avoid using the religion for unprofessional incitement during such significant national occasions.

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Summarized Fatawaa

I own a pharmacy and have only merchandise. A full year (*ḥawl*) has passed and I have no cash. How do I pay the zakāh?

 

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
Zakāh must be paid immediately from the day it becomes due, and delaying it is forbidden when one is able to pay it, because it is the right of the poor, and it is forbidden to delay giving people their rights except for a valid Sharīʿah excuse. Shaykh al-Islām Imam al-Nawawī (may Allah have mercy on him) said: “In our school, zakāh must be paid out immediately. Once it becomes due and he is able to pay it, it is not permissible to delay it. If he is unable, he may delay it until he is able. If he delays it after being able, he is disobedient and becomes liable for it.” [al-Majmūʿ Sharḥ al-Muhadhdhab, Vol.5/p.333]
If cash is not available to pay the zakāh and the only option is to pay in installments, he must pay it, even if in installments, from the proceeds of the merchandise that is sold after the time the zakāh became due, by deducting a set amount from each day’s takings. And Allah Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on a father shaking hands with his son’s wife after she has been divorced three times?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
The wife of one’s son is among the women permanently prohibited to the husband’s father as soon as the marriage contract  is concluded, based on the saying of Allah the Exalted: “Prohibited to you are your mothers, your daughters, your sisters, your paternal aunts, your maternal aunts, your brother’s daughters, your sister’s daughters, your foster mothers, your foster sisters, your wives’ mothers, and your stepdaughters under your guardianship [born] of your wives with whom you have consummated marriage. But if you have not consummated marriage with them, there is no sin upon you. [Also prohibited are] the wives of your sons who are from your loins, and that you take [in marriage] two sisters simultaneously, except for what has already occurred. Indeed, Allah is ever Forgiving and Merciful.” [al-Nisāʾ/23]
This prohibition begins once the son’s marriage contract with his wife is complete, and it remains in force even if the son separates from her before consummation or before any seclusion (khalwah) with her. It is therefore permissible for the father to shake her hand and to be alone with her, provided there is no fitnah (temptation) and no suspicion.
It is stated in ʿUmdat al-Sālik (p. 204): “It is forbidden to marry… the wives of one’s fathers and of one’s sons. All of these women become prohibited by the mere contract, … all of that being a permanent prohibition.” End quote, with slight adaptation. And Allah Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on a woman using contraception without her husband's knowledge if he is mistreating her?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is not permissible for a woman to use any means of delaying pregnancy without her husband's knowledge, consent, and mutual agreement. This is because having children is a sharʿī right belonging to both spouses equally in Islamic law. Imām al-Māwardī, may Allah have mercy upon him, stated: "The right to a child from a free woman is shared between them both" — meaning between the two spouses. [al-Ḥāwī al-Kabīr, 9/320]
It is therefore not permissible for either spouse to make a unilateral decision regarding the prevention of pregnancy without the consent of the other. We advise both spouses to discuss the matter with wisdom and mutual respect, so as to resolve any disagreement and arrive at a suitable solution that serves the interests of them both. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible for a wife to leave her house without asking her husband?

It is impermissible for the wife to leave her house without asking her husband except for a sound reason.