What is the difference between Tahajjud prayer and night prayer, and do they have a particular Witr prayer other than that of Isha (evening prayer)?
Tahajjud and Qiyam-Al-Lail (night prayer) are two words for the same meaning which is offering voluntary prayer at night after sunset, but before dawn break. However, Tahajjud is offered after waking up; whereas, Qiyam-Al-Lail is permissible before sleeping, or after it. Therefore, every Tahajjud is a Qiyam, but not every Qiyam is a Tahajjud. Moreover, there is no specified Witr for both of them, but Witr after Isha is by itself the Witr of Qiyam, and it is a Sunnah to postpone it until after Qiyam if the worshiper thought that he was most probably going to wake up in order to offer it, but if he wasn`t sure of waking up, then he is at liberty to offer it before going to bed as was reported in the Prophet`s Hadith.
Is a wife considered sinful if she asked for divorce because her husband married another woman?
A second marriage is lawful, and so it is impermissible for you to ask for divorce because of that. If you are certain that you won`t be able to deliver Allah`s rights and those of your husband`s , then it is permissible for you to ask for Khul`a (Divorce on the demand of the wife). However, you should exercise patience since after difficulties, there is easiness by the will of Allah.
Does fasting on behalf of a deceased person permissible?
Fasting on belhaf of a deceased person is permissible, since the Prophet (PBUH) said: "Whoever dies while he still has some fasts to make up (of the days of Ramadan), then his heir (any of them) should fast on his behalf." [Agreed upon]. The previous answer is for making up missed obligatory fasts on behalf of the deceased. But if the fasting on behlaf of the deceased was for performing a voluntary acts of devotion such as fasting....is permissible as adopted by the majority of Muslim scholars and based on the above hadith as they stated "Every good dead intended to be on behalf of the deceased its reward will reach the latter." And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a woman to use a contraceptive without telling her husband although he wants to have as many children as possible and she can`t care for them?
All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds, may His Blessings and Peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
If the pregnancy is harmful to the woman, it is permissible for her to use a contraceptive; however, this has to be backed by a medical report from a God-fearing doctor. In addition, you had better inform your of what you are doing to avoid dispute. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
