Is it permissible for a woman who has become pure before the end of forty days of confinement to perform different acts of worship? and is it lawful for her husband to have sex with her?
Once postpartum bleeding ceases and she is certain that it won`t happen again, she becomes pure, and so she should perform Ghusl (ritual bath), pray, and fast. She can also have sex with her husband even before the end of (40) days because the minimum of postpartum bleeding is a moment, and the maximum is (60) days. However, the postpartum bleeding for the majority of women is (40) days, but this does not apply to rest of them.
What are the nullifiers of fasting?
1. Anything that enters the body cavity intentionally, even in small amounts, through an open passage such as the mouth, nose, ears, front, or back private parts.
2. Intentional vomiting.
3. Sexual intercourse.
4. Masturbation.
5. Menstruation and postnatal bleeding.
6. Insanity.
7. Apostasy.
8. Fainting if it lasts for the entire day.
What are the conditions for the validity of the slaughtering process according to Sharia?
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
Regarding the Sharia-mandated conditions for the validity of the slaughtering process (Adh-Dhabh), they are as follows:
The Identity of the Slaughterer: The person performing the slaughter must be either a Muslim or from the People of the Book (Christian or Jewish).
The Required Cuts: Both the trachea (windpipe/breathing passage) and the esophagus (food passage) must be completely severed.
Stability of Life: The animal must possess stable life at the start of the slaughtering process. This is identified by clear signs, such as vigorous movement or the forceful gushing of blood after the throat and esophagus are cut.
The Tool of Slaughter: The tool used must be sharp, capable of cutting or piercing by its edge and not by its sheer weight or blunt force.
And Allah the Almighty knows best.
My father has debts and asked me to repay them years ago, and I promised him I would do so upon his death — is it permissible for me to go back on my promise given that I am unable to repay them, especially since he refuses to contribute to repayment on the grounds that the debt has become my responsibility by virtue of my promise?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
The established principle is that a father's debt is to be repaid from his own wealth, if he possesses sufficient means. As for the promise made by the son to repay it on his father's behalf, fulfilling such a promise is strongly recommended, and breaking it is considerably disliked. Shaykh al-Islām Imām al-Nawawī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states: "Fulfilling a promise is emphatically recommended, and breaking it is severely disliked. The evidences for this from the Qurʾān and the Sunnah are well known." [Rawḍat al-Ṭālibīn,Vol. 2/P.278] Shaykh al-Islām Imām Zakariyyā al-Anṣārī, may Allah have mercy upon him, further states: "The reason fulfilling a promise is not obligatory and breaking it is not forbidden is that a promise is in the nature of a gift, and a gift does not become binding except upon receipt." [Asnā al-Maṭālib fī Sharḥ Rawḍ al-Ṭālib,Vol. 2/P.487]
Given that the son does not possess the financial means to fulfil his promise to his father, breaking this promise falls beyond his capacity — and Allah does not burden a soul beyond what it can bear. Since the father himself possesses sufficient wealth to settle his own debt, repayment must be made from his own funds. Should he pass away before doing so, the debt is to be settled from his estate. And Allah the Almighty knows best.
