عربي
Home


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(100) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

 "Ruling on Purchasing a Certain Quantity of Diamond from Abroad through The Arab Islamic Bank“

Date: 14/3/1427 AH, corresponding to 13/4/2006 AD.

 

 

Question:

Does diamond take the same ruling as gold?

Answer: All success is due to Allah.

The Board is of the view that diamond isn`t amongst the prices and doesn`t take the ruling of gold; therefore, it is permissible for the questioner to purchase whatever quantity he likes through the Arab Islamic Bank, provided that he adheres to the Sharia rulings pertaining to Murabaha sale. The most important of these are: The bank should purchase the diamond for itself first. After the diamond becomes in its possession and guarantee, it should sell it to the client/purchaser. This is based on what the Prophet(PBUH) said to Hakim Bin Hizam: “  I bought some food and made food and made a profit on it (by selling it) before I took possession of it. I came to the Messenger of Allah and told him about that and he said: 'Do not sell it until you take possession of it. "'{Ahmad}.

 

 

Iftaa` Board

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Dr. Ahmad Hilayel

Dr. AbdulMajeed Al-Salaheen

Dr. Abdukareem Al-Khasawneh

Dr. Yousef Ghyzaan

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

Sheikh Sae`id Hijjawi

Sheikh Nae`im Mujahid

Decision Number [ Previous | Next ]


Summarized Fatawaa

What should a person who was favored from Allah with a newborn, but couldn`t afford an Aqeeqah, do?

Aqeeqah (the sheep slaughtered on the seventh day from the child`s birth) is a desirable Sunnah for the financially able since Allah, The Exalted, charges not a soul beyond its capacity. Therefore, if the father couldn`t afford the Aqeeqah before the end of his wife`s confinement, then it isn`t due on him, and if he was able to afford it later on, then it is permissible, but if he didn`t until the child reached puberty, the latter can offer the Aqeeqah himself.

I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
 
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
 

Does Istigfar (Asking Allah for forgiveness) between the first and the second part of Friday prayer`s sermon render the prayer invalid?

Talking during Friday prayer`s sermon is disliked, but there is no harm in offering Istigfar between the two parts of the sermon, and it doesn`t invalidate the prayer as it is actually from Sunnah. And Allah Knows Best.

A man cursed Allah, is he allowed to perform prayer without making Ghusl?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
 
Cursing Allah is an act of apostasy and one who commits it must utter the testimonies of faith, make repentance, take back wife; however, it isn`t conditioned that he makes Ghusl (Full body ritual purification) to pray. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

See More