Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(62): "Making Repentance after having Purchased Stocks of a non-Islamic Bank"

Date Added : 25-02-2020

 

Resolution No.(62): "Making Repentance after having Purchased Stocks of a non-Islamic Bank"

Date: 5/3/1424 AH, corresponding to 7/3/2003

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

We have received the following question:

In 1977, I bought two hundred stocks of a non-Islamic bank and I want to atone this sin. What is the view of Sharia regarding these stocks? Should I keep them or give them to charity, but keep my principal sum? Am I allowed to give their value to one of my sons whom I`m not obliged to support, to pay for his tuition, marriage and the like. How should I calculate the difference in the value of the currency between that time and now?

The Board is of the view that she should sell all the stocks that she herself had purchased from the bank and from her husband, and then she should take only her principal sum as prescribed in the following verse: "Yet if you repent, you shall have your principal sums, not being unjust, and no injustice being done to you." {Al-Baqarah/279}. Moreover, She should distribute the remaining sum amongst the poor and needy, and she isn`t allowed to take any of it for herself unless she was poor. In this case, she may take what covers her need as a poor person. Moreover, she is allowed to spend on one of her sons whom she isn`t obliged to support as much as needed to cover the expenses of his study or marriage if he was poor.

As far as the calculation of the difference in the values of a currency between the times of purchasing the stocks and now, both values should be estimated and the total should be divided by two. And Allah Knows Best.

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izz Aldeen Attamimi
Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri
Dr. Mohammad Abu Yahia
Dr. Yousef Ghizaan
Sheikhb Sa`id Hijjawi
Sheikh Na`iem Mujahid
Sheikh Mahmood Shwayat

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on making up missed fasts from many years?

A Muslim must make up for any missed fasts, as they are a debt owed to Allah. The Prophet ﷺ said:
"The debt owed to Allah is more deserving of being fulfilled." [Narrated by Muslim]
Whoever has missed fasts must make them up as long as they are alive and capable of fasting.

What is the ruling on swearing an oath by the Prophet ﷺ, and does such an oath take effect according to Imām Aḥmad ibn Ḥanbal, requiring expiation upon its breach?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Swearing an oath by a created being is disliked (makrūh) in our Shāfiʿī school. Shaykh al-Islām Imām al-Nawawī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states: "Swearing by a created being is disliked — such as swearing by the Prophet, the Kaʿbah, Jibrīl, the Companions, or the Prophet's family. Al-Shāfiʿī, may Allah have mercy upon him, said: 'I fear that swearing by other than Allah the Almighty may constitute an act of disobedience.' The scholars of the school explained this to mean: that is, something forbidden and sinful — indicating that he had some hesitation in the matter. Al-Imām stated: the established position of the school is that it is categorically not forbidden, but rather disliked. Furthermore, whoever swears by a created being, his oath does not take effect and no expiation (kaffārah) is required if he breaks it." [Rawḍat al-Ṭālibīn wa ʿUmdat al-Muftīn, Vol. 11/P.6]
According to the Ḥanbalī school, however, expiation becomes obligatory upon one who swears by our master the Prophet ﷺ and then breaks his oath. Imām al-Bahūtī al-Ḥanbalī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states: "No expiation is required for swearing by other than Allah the Almighty, even if the oath is broken — because expiation was made obligatory for swearing by Allah and His attributes, out of reverence for His names, and nothing else is equal to Him in this regard... except in the case of swearing by our Prophet Muḥammad ﷺ, for expiation becomes obligatory when one swears by him and then breaks the oath. This was explicitly stated in the narration of Abū Ṭālib, because he is one of the two conditions of the two testimonies of faith by which a disbeliever becomes a Muslim. Ibn ʿAqīl held the view that swearing by any of the other prophets, peace and blessings be upon them all, carries the same ruling." [Sharḥ Muntahā al-Irādāt, Vol. 3/P.441]. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is Zakah (obligatory charity) due on land intended for selling?

Yes, lands intended for trade are valued, and Zakah is paid according to their estimated value after a lunar year had lapsed, but if the owner didn`t pay the due Zakah, then he should do so after selling them.

Is it acceptable to perform the Aqiqah for a male child by slaughtering and distributing the first sheep, and bringing the second one cooked from the restaurant?

 

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.

It is permissible to slaughter the first sheep with the intention of Aqiqah (the newborn's sacrificial offering) and distribute it entirely [uncooked], and to slaughter the second sheep and have it cooked at a restaurant to bring home for the household. However, it must be noted that it is obligatory to give some portion of the Aqiqah in charity to the poor, even if it is a small amount, though it is preferable to send the food cooked to them.

Buying a pre-cooked, ready-made sheep from a restaurant does not suffice as an Aqiqah. However, if an agreement is made with the restaurant to explicitly slaughter a sheep with the intention of Aqiqah for the newborn, and then cook it afterward, this is permissible.

In conclusion, slaughtering the sheep and distributing it with the intention of Aqiqah is permissible, and through it, the foundational prophetic tradition (Sunnah) is fulfilled. As for simply buying a cooked sheep from a restaurant that was not specifically slaughtered with the intention of Aqiqah, it will not count as such. Conversely, if the restaurant owner is commissioned (Wakala) to handle both the slaughtering and the cooking as an Aqiqah, it is valid. And Allah the Almighty knows best.