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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(221): "The Prize Resulting from Transferring the Maid`s Salary is hers, not her Employer`s"

Date Added : 23-02-2016

Resolution No.(221) (3/2016) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"The Prize Resulting from Transferring the Maid`s Salary is hers, not her Employer`s"

Date: 8/Jumada 1/ 1437, corresponding to 17/2/2016 AD.

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

During its second session held on the above date, the Board reviewed a question that read as follows:

I transfer my maid`s salary, to her family, through an exchange office which holds a prize draw on such transfers. Do I have the right to collect the won prize or is it my maid`s, taking into consideration that I pay for the transfer fees?

After deliberating, the Board decided what follows:

The salaries of the above employer`s maid, which he transfers to her family, are a debt on him. Legal scholars define debt as "A rightful obligation due on a person", and this includes any confirmed obligation incurred by a loan, a sale/transaction, an Ijarah (hiring) or else.

The above salaries is a debt, on you, possessed by your maid, in return for her work at your house, and she is permitted to dispose of it as she likes, including appointing you as her proxy with that money. Legal scholars have permitted  authorizing  the person,  on whom one`s debt is due, to dispose of that debt the way they ask him to.

For instance; the proxy in this regard is permissible as stated by scholars; whereas Ashrbini stated: "If he/she authorized their employer to buy them an item in return for their debt, due on him, and he did, then that is permissible according  to the more famous of the two opinions that validate proxy purchase." [Al-Mughni, vol3/pp.236].

In conclusion, the above money is possessed by the maid, and her employer functions as her proxy in transferring it to her family abroad; therefore, the loss or profit incurred by that proxy contract is hers, so the prize is hers as well; because it has resulted from her authorizing him. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, The Grand Mufti of Jordan, Sheikh Abdulkareem Alkhasawneh

Vice Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Prof. Ahmad Hilayel

Dr. Hayel Abdulhafeez/ Member

Prof. Abdulnnasir Abulbasal/ Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Hijjawi/ Member

Dr. Yahia Albotoosh/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Alessa/ Member

Dr. Khalid Alworaikat/ Member

Prof. Abdullah AlFawaaz/ Member

Dr. Mohammad AlKhalayleh/ Member

Dr. Mohammad AlZou`bi/ Member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible for a father to divide his property amongst his children except one under the pretext that he has paid for the latter`s tuition? This is knowing that his other children were given the opportunity to pursue their education but didn`t because they were educationally poor. Moreover, is he allowed to give his other children who have helped him with growing his business?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
The father should be just between his children as regards gifts, in case they had similar circumstances. However, if any had a special merit, then it is permissible for the father to take that into account to be just. For example, giving his children who have helped in making his fortune and received no reward for that or giving the little ones because they haven`t taken as much as the older ones or giving the sick child who is unable to make a living. The most important thing is achieving justice. Moreover, the father is not interdicted by any of his children, and he is free to do whatever he wants with his money and Allah will call him to account as regards observing justice between his children. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

Is it permissible for the woman who is observing Iddah after the death of her husband to exchange calls with her relatives and husband`s family call?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It is permissible for the woman who is observing Iddah* after death of husband to exchange calls with them; however, when she speaks to non-Mahrams , she shouldn`t be soft of speech and she should be straight to the point. This because Almighty Allah Says (What means): "O ye wives of the Prophet! Ye are not like any other women. If ye keep your duty (to Allah), then be not soft of speech, lest he in whose heart is a disease aspire (to you), but utter customary speech." [Al-Ahzaab/32]. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
 

 [1] The iddah is a waiting period that a Muslim woman observes after the death of her husband or after a divorce. The Quran says: For those men who die amongst you and leave behind wives, they (the wives) must confine themselves (spend iddah) for four months and ten days.

Which is better, to pray at a prayer place (Musala) whereas many people pray in it, or at a near by mosque in which a few people perform prayer?

Praying at the mosque that has a bigger number is better so long as the number of praying people at the other mosque permits performing prayers in congregation. And Allah Knows Best.

Is it permissible for a woman who has become pure before the end of forty days of confinement to perform different acts of worship? and is it lawful for her husband to have sex with her?

Once postpartum bleeding ceases and she is certain that it won`t happen again, she becomes pure, and so she should perform Ghusl (ritual bath), pray, and fast. She can also have sex with her husband even before the end of (40) days because the minimum of postpartum bleeding is a moment, and the maximum is (60) days. However, the postpartum bleeding for the majority of women is (40) days, but this does not apply to rest of them.

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