Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(111): “Ruling on the Profits Yielding from the Operating of the Savings Bank Funds of the Arab Potash Company`s Staff at Jordan Export and Finance Bank and Jordan International Insurance Company

Date Added : 28-10-2015

 

Resolution No.(111): "Investing Profits of Arab Potash Company Deposit Staff's Fund at Jordan Export and Finance Bank and Jordan International insurance Co."

Date: 23/7/1427 AH, corresponding to 17/8/2006 AD.

 

The Board received the following question:
What is the ruling of Islamic Sharia regarding the profits yielding from operating the savings bank`s funds of the staff of the Jordan Potash Company at Jordan Export and Finance Bank and Jordan Insurance Company?
Answer: All success is due to Allah
The Board is of the view that the aforementioned profits are unlawful, for Allah The Almighty Says in the Noble Quran {what means}: “If ye do it not, Take notice of war from God and His Apostle: But if ye turn back, ye shall have your capital sums: Deal not unjustly, and ye shall not be dealt with unjustly.“ {Al-Baqarah/279}. Therefore, they should be disbursed in favor of the poor, the needy, and public interest. And Allah Knows Best.

The Iftaa' Board
Chairman of The Iftaa' Board/Cheif Justice/ Dr. Ahmad Hilayeel
    Dr. Yousef Ali Ghythan
                   Dr. Abd-Al-Majeed Al- Salaheen
Dr. Wasif Al Bakhry
                            Sheikh Abd-Al-Kareem Al-Khsawneh
    Sheikh Sa'eed Hijjawi
          Sheikh. Na'eem Mojahed

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it obligatory to have an intention (niyyah) for every prayer?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
It is obligatory for the worshiper to have a specific intention (Niyyah) for every prayer, meaning they must consciously intend the act of worship they are performing. The intention is a pillar (Rukn) of the prayer, and the prayer is not valid without it. It is not a requirement to utter the intention verbally; rather, doing so is considered a recommended Sunnah. And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on discharges two or three days before the expected period of menstruation and the light-colored blood accompanying it? Must the woman abstain from prayer during this period?

If the total duration of these blood-tinged discharges reaches a day and a night (24 hours) or more, it is considered menstruation. If their total does not exceed 24 hours, it is not considered menstruation but is irregular bleeding (dam al-fasad). Each woman has specific cases for which she should ask the scholars. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling if someone wipes his head then shaves it - must he repeat it?

If a person performing ablution shaves his head after wiping it during ablution, he is not required to re-wipe his head or repeat the ablution. And Allah the Almighty knows best.