Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(103): “Sharia Ruling on Investing the Waqf Funds“

Date Added : 28-10-2015

 

Resolution No.(103) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

 "Sharia Ruling on Investing the Waqf Funds"

Date: 5/4/1427 AH, corresponding to 3/5/2006.

 

Question:

 

Awqaf Funds Development Foundation has the amount of (1.700.000) JDs as Waqf revenues of past years, and  wishes to make it a monetary Waqf to be invested and its revenues to be spent for charity. What is the ruling of Sharia in this regard?

Answer:

After extensive researching and deliberation, the Board decided that since the above sum is the yield of past years,  it is difficult to know the terms which were set by its Waqifeen (endowers) in order to spend it  accordingly, as Sharia obligates in such case. The religious interest dictates non-freezing of such funds because the terms of their endowers aren`t known; therefore, it is permissible to regard them as a monetary Waqf (endowment) to be developed and invested by the above Foundation in all that is lawful. This in order for the yield to be spent in different charitable channels, provided that the terms set by the endowers are met as much as possible since the condition of the endower is tantamount to the provisions of the Law-Giver. Moreover, since the above Foundation functions as the trustee of the Waqf, then it is permissible for it to allocate a certain amount from these returns to cover the expenses and wages of its employees, but within reasonable limits along with maintaining the original capital.

This is based on the following Hadith :"Concerning the Waqf of 'Umar: It was not sinful of the trustee (of the Waqf) to eat or provide his friends from it, provided the trustee had no intention of collecting fortune (for himself). Ibn 'Umar was the manager of the trust of 'Umar and he used to give presents from it to those with whom he used to stay at Mecca." {Bukhari}. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

Iftaa` Board

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Dr. Ahmad Hilayel

Dr. AbdulMajeed Al-Salaheen

Dr. Abdukareem Al-Khasawneh

Dr. Yousef Ghyzaan

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

Sheikh Sae`id Hijjawi

Sheikh Nae`im Mujahid

Decision Number [ Previous | Next ]


Summarized Fatawaa

Can someone who begins a voluntary fast break it?

It is preferable for someone who begins an act of worship not to break it.
Allah the Exalted has said {what means}: "and let not your [good] deeds come to nought!" [Muhammad/33].
However, if a person starts a voluntary fast (nafl) and needs to break it, they are going against what is preferable, but there is no sin upon them.

What is the ruling on omitting the prostration of recitation?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
The prostration of recitation (Sajdat al-Tilawah) is a Sunnah for both the reader and the listener. There is no sin in omitting it, though doing so results in missing a great reward. Muslim narrated from Abu Hurairah (may Allah be pleased with him) that the Prophet ﷺ said: 'When the son of Adam recites a verse of prostration and prostrates, Shaytan withdraws weeping, saying: "Woe to him! (and in the narration of Abu Kuraib: "Woe to me!") The son of Adam was commanded to prostrate and he prostrated, so Paradise is his; and I was commanded to prostrate and I refused, so the Fire is mine."'
 
Sheikh al-Islam Imam al-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) stated: 'It is recommended to prostrate immediately after reciting or hearing a verse of prostration. If one delays it but the interval is short, he may still prostrate. However, if the interval is long, the opportunity is missed.' [Rawdat al-Talibin Vol.1/P.323].
 
Furthermore, the prostration of recitation becomes obligatory (Wajib) in congregational prayer if the Imam prostrates, out of the necessity of following him. And Allah the Exalted knows best.

Is it permissible for a religious young Muslim woman to love a young man for Allah`s sakes?

Such love between the two sexes is from the devil`s evil suggestions, and a pure Muslim woman should beware of such a matter, and she shouldn`t mix with non-Mahrams (Marriageable ).

What is the ruling on performing istinja' before every ablution?

Istinja' is not from the conditions for the validity of ablution. It is only obligatory for prayer when there is impurity from urine or stool on the private part, or if there is fear of the impurity spreading to the body or clothing. And Allah the Almighty knows best.