عربي
Home


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(81): “The Ruling of Sharia on Printing Two Copies of the Quran“

Date Added : 28-10-2015

 

Resolution No.(81) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

 "The Ruling of Sharia on Printing Two Copies of the Quran“

Date: 9/7/1425 AH, corresponding to 25/8/2004 AD.

 

 

 

 

Question: 

I have attached two copies of the Quran, and would like to know whether printing them is permissible or not?

First copy: Printed by Dar Al-Kahir, Beiruit, size 35/25 cm, 4th edition 1402, and includes a marginal index on each page of the Mus-haf.

Second copy: Memorization Mus-haf written on cards that hold Tafseer Al-Jalalain, first edition 2004 AD.

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah.

The Board is of the view that the marginal index in the first copy usually leads to concealing the marks indicating the Quran`s parts, Ahzaab, Arbaa`, pauses and instances of prostration. The Board sees that such a copy of the Mus-haf is lawful so long as it preserves the marks which indicate the above mentioned.

 

 

As regards the second copy, the Board has the following remarks:

1- This copy changes the order of the Quran`s chapters as  revealed from Allah The Almighty.

2- Writing the Mus-haf on cards eliminates the marks indicating its parts, Ahzaab, Arbaa`, pauses and instances of prostration.

3- Placing Tafseer {science of explaining the meaning of the Quran} Al-Jalalain behind these cards contradicts with the practice observed by Al-Salaf Al-Saleh {righteous predecessors} who kept the interpretation on the margins.

4- There are many methods for memorizing the Quran other than the cards method.

Therefore, the Board bans printing the second copy. And Allah Knows Best.

 

The Board of Iftaa`
Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izzaldeen At-Tamimi
Dr. Abdullah Al-Manasrah
Dr. Yousef Ghyzaan
Dr. Abdulmajeed Al-Salaheen
Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri
Sheikh Naei`m Mujahid
Sheikh Sae`id Hijjawi

Decision Number [ Previous | Next ]


Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on kissing while fasting?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is prohibitively disliked (makrūh taḥrīman) for a husband to engage in foreplay with or kiss his wife during the daylight hours of Ramaḍān if doing so stirs his desire. If pre-seminal fluid (madhī) is released as a result, the fast is not invalidated; however, if seminal fluid (manī) is released, the fast is broken.
Imām al-Khaṭīb al-Sharbīnī, may Allah have mercy upon him, stated: "It is prohibitively disliked to kiss — whether on the mouth or elsewhere — for one whose desire is stirred, whether man or woman, to the extent that he fears it may lead to intercourse or ejaculation. Embracing, touching, and similar acts without a barrier carry the same ruling as kissing in this regard, because such acts expose the act of worship to being corrupted — and as the two Ṣaḥīḥs record: 'Whoever circles around a protected boundary is liable to fall into it.'"
He further added: "It is preferable for one whose desire is not stirred — even if he is a young man — to refrain from such acts as well, so as to close the door entirely. For he may believe his desire has not been aroused when in fact it has. Moreover, it is Sunnah for the fasting person to abstain from all desires without exception." — Summarised with minor adaptation from [Mughnī al-Muḥtāj]. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it obligatory to have an intention (niyyah) for every prayer?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
It is obligatory for the worshiper to have a specific intention (Niyyah) for every prayer, meaning they must consciously intend the act of worship they are performing. The intention is a pillar (Rukn) of the prayer, and the prayer is not valid without it. It is not a requirement to utter the intention verbally; rather, doing so is considered a recommended Sunnah. And Allah the Exalted knows best.

How should I deal with the whispers of the devil with regard to ablution and purity?

Whispers in ablution are from the devil, and so you should take refuge in Allah from the devil`s evil suggestions that aim to distort the religion. Thus, once an organ is completely pure, don`t question its purity since having whispers doesn`t mean that the purity is invalid as it has already been established.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

See More