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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(69): “Ruling of Sharia on the Definition of Reproductive Health“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(69): “Ruling of Sharia on the Definition of Reproductive Health“

Date: 5/8/1424 AH corresponding to 1/10/2003 AD.

 

The Board has received the following question:

What is the opinion of the Iftaa` Board as regards the following definition of reproductive health?

Reproductive health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity, in all matters relating to the reproductive system and to its functions and processes. Reproductive health therefore implies that people are able to have a satisfying and safe sex life and that they have the capability to reproduce and the freedom to decide if, when and how often to do so. Implicit in this last condition are the right of men and women to be informed and to have access to safe, effective, affordable and acceptable methods of family planning of their choice, as well as other methods of their choice for regulation of fertility which are not against the law, and the right of access to appropriate health-care services that will enable women to go safely through pregnancy and childbirth and provide couples with the best chance of having a healthy infant. {The International Conference on Population Development}.

Answer: All success is due to Allah.

After reviewing the above definition, the Board made the following remarks:

1- The statement: “Reproductive health therefore implies that people are able to have a satisfying and safe sex life and that they have the capability to reproduce and the freedom to decide if, when and how often to do so” contradicts with the rules of Islamic Sharia, so it must read  as follows: “Reproductive health therefore implies that both spouses are able to have a satisfying and safe sex life and that they have the capability to reproduce and the freedom to decide if, when and how often to do so, in line with the rules of Islamic Sharia.“

2- The above definition includes legal and illegal relationships between men and women, and this violates the principles of Islam, which only permits relationships through legal and valid marriage since Allah, the Almighty Says in this regard {what means}: “It is He Who has created man from water: then has He established relationships of lineage and marriage: for thy Lord has power (over all things).” {Al-Furqan/54}. Scholars stated about the interpretation of this verse: {Lineage is the mixing of water (sperm) between a male and a female legally; otherwise, it becomes neither a lineage nor a marriage.} Allah Says {what means}: “And among His Signs is this, that He created for you mates from among yourselves, that ye may dwell in tranquillity with them, and He has put love and mercy between your (hearts): verily in that are Signs for those who reflect.” {Ar-Rum/21}.

3- The statement: “Which are not against the law “isn`t in line with the rules of Islamic Sharia, so it must read as follows: “Which aren`t against the rules of Islamic Sharia.” This is because it is an obligation on every Muslim man and woman to abide by the rules of Sharia, and not to commit any act that violates them, for Allah Says {what means}: “But no, by the Lord, they can have no (real) Faith, until they make thee judge in all disputes between them, and find in their souls no resistance against Thy decisions, but accept them with the fullest conviction.” {An-Nisa`/65}. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Iftaa` Board

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izz Al-Deen Al-Tamimi

                Dr. Mohammad Abu Yahia               

    Dr. Yousef Gheezaan

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

   Sheikh Saeid Hijjawi

        Sheikh Na`eim Mujahid

                 Sheikh Mahmoud Shwayyaat

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on someone who wakes up in a state of janābah (major ritual impurity) near the very end of the prayer's designated time, during cold weather — should he heat water in order to perform ghusl, even though the prayer's time will expire as a result, or should he perform tayammum instead?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
If the water is cold, and cannot be used due to fear of harm that is not ordinarily tolerable, or that would result in illness, then in this case it becomes obligatory to heat the water — even if heating it causes the time for Fajr to expire — and no sin is incurred in doing so, due to his valid excuse. He may not resort to tayammum (dry ablution) instead, since water remains available [and merely needs to be heated].
Imam Shihāb ad-Dīn Aḥmad ar-Ramlī (raḥimahullāh) said: "He was asked regarding a person who, if he were to use cold water, would experience harm that permits tayammum, and who has access to something with which he could heat the water — but if he heats it, the prayer's time will expire. Is it obligatory for him to heat it even if the time expires, or should he pray with tayammum within the prescribed time? He answered that it is obligatory for him to heat the water, even if the time for that particular obligatory prayer expires." [Fatāwā ar-Ramlī, Vol.1/P.98]
Imam al-Bājūrī (raḥimahullāh) said in his Ḥāshiyah on Sharḥ Ibn Qāsim (Vol.1/P.173): "And if he fears [harm] from using cold water, and is currently unable to heat it, but knows of a place where firewood is available, such that if he were to go there he would not return until after the prescribed time has expired — what appears [to be the correct position] is that it is obligatory for him to go and seek the firewood, even if the time expires as a result, as this is the position ultimately settled upon by ar-Ramlī, and as related from him by Ibn Qāsim." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Is fidyah required for someone who breaks their fast due to a valid excuse?

● If the excuse is permanent, such as a chronic illness with no hope of recovery or old age, then fidyah is required. This means feeding one needy person for each missed fasting day.
● However, if the excuse is temporary, such as menstruation, postnatal bleeding, or a temporary illness, then only making up the missed fasts (qada) is required, and fidyah does not apply.

What is the ruling on swearing a false oath by the Holy Quran?

Swearing a false oath by the Holy Quran dips the oath-taker in Hellfire, and one who had done so should turn to Allah in repentance, seek His forgiveness, give back rights to whom they belong, and pay the oath expiation.

If a woman becomes pure from menstruation before the Fajr Adhan in Ramadan, is she required to fast?

If a woman becomes pure (from menstrual period) before the Fajr Adhan, she must fast, as the impediment preventing her from fasting has been removed. The Sharia maxim in this regard states: "When the impediment is removed, the obligation returns."
She should then make the intention to fast before Fajr and perform ghusl (ritual purification) for prayer, whether before or after Fajr.

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