Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(16): “Inheriting on Basis of Wala (Allegiance) and Manumission“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

Resolution No.(16) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:
“Inheriting on Basis of Wala (Allegiance) and Manumission“
Date: 29/1/1411 AH, 20/8/1990 AD

 

We have received the following question: 
Mr. (Q) died this year in Makkah. His father Mr. (P) was a manumitted slave of Mr. (Y). Mr. (P) who had an heir (D) died without leaving him any estate. What is the ruling of Sharia on (D), does he remain manumitted like his father, or does he become free by the manumission of his father?
Mr. (Q) has died leaving a wife, a bequest, a debt, movable and immovable property in banks and companies...etc. His sole heir was his wife since he had no paternal relatives. Are the heirs of Mr. (Y) eligible to receive any share from the estate of Mr. (P) If yes, then to whom. The question that arises here is: who inherits Mr. (Q), and how should his estate be distributed after his debts are settled and his bequest is executed in charitable causes?
Answer: All success is due to Allah.
In this case, Mr. (Y) isn`t entitled to receive anything from the estate of Mr. (P). However, Mr. (Q`s) wife`s share is a quarter, and the rest of the estate is given to the public treasury because Mr. (P`s) mother is originally a free woman. This is based on what was stated in the books of jurisprudence: {Moghni Al-Mohtajj} and {Ash-sharh Al-Kabeer}; in volume (7), (P243) , in addition to another page of the latter book (247), that reads as follow: “One whom any of his free parents was originally free isn`t bound to pledge allegiance to anyone“. 
According to the articles of the Jordanian Law in force: “Mr. (Q`s) wife shall receive a quarter of his estate according to Islamic Sharia, and she shall also take the rest of his estate because she is his sole heir. This is stipulated in article (181) of the Jordanian Civil Status Law, which states that the rest of the estate shall be received by one of the spouses in case one of them died while having no paternal relatives.“ And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Mohammad Mohailaan
The Grand Mufti of Jordan, Izz Ad-Deen At-Tamimi
Dr. Yaseen Dradkeh
Dr. Ahmad Hilayel
Dr. Ibrahim Zaid Al-Khaylani

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

How do I deal with whispers (waswasa) in ablution and purification?

Whispers in ablution are from Satan, and the Muslim should not pay attention to them. He is not required to re-perform ablution or repeat washing a limb because of waswasa. He should always base his purification on its being valid. It is recommended for him to frequently say "La ilaha illa Allah" (There is no god but Allah), because Satan recoils when Allah is mentioned. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on selling gold or silver in installments or for a differed price?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
It is prohibited (haram) to sell gold or silver in installments or for a deferred price; rather, immediate hand-to-hand exchange (Taqabud) is mandatory, otherwise, it is considered usury (Riba). The Messenger of Allah ﷺ said: 'Gold for gold, silver for silver, wheat for wheat, barley for barley, dates for dates, and salt for salt—like for like, hand to hand. Whoever increases or asks for an increase has engaged in Riba; the receiver and the giver are the same in this regard.' (Narrated by Muslim). Furthermore, when exchanging new gold for used gold, they must be of equal weight, or it falls into Riba.
 
The permissible solution (al-makhraj) is for the merchant to purchase the used gold for cash first, and then sell the new gold for cash in a separate transaction. However, the price must be paid during the sitting of the contract (Majlis al-Aqd) for both deals. Alternatively, the jeweler may take the used gold with the intent of remodeling or repairing it, and then charge a fee for the craftsmanship or repair work. And Allah the Exalted knows best."

Is it a condition for the mosque where I‘tikaf is performed to hold Jumu‘ah prayers?

No, it is not a condition for the mosque where I‘tikaf is performed to have Jumu‘ah prayers. However, if a person vows to perform continuous I‘tikaf, and Jumu‘ah occurs within that period, then they must observe I‘tikaf in a mosque where Jumu‘ah is held so that they do not break their continuity by leaving for Friday prayer.

Is it permissible for a woman to perform the obligatory prayer immediately after the adhan and before the Iqamah is performed in the mosque?

 

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
Yes, it is permissible for a woman to perform the obligatory (Fard) prayer immediately after the Adhan (call to prayer) and before the Iqamah (call to commence prayer) is performed in the mosque. And Allah the Exalted knows best.