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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(168): "Ruling when Members of Voluntary Administrative Bodies Make use of the Free Offers Made to these Bo"

Date Added : 11-10-2015

 

Resolution No.(168)(9/2011) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling  when Members of Voluntary Administrative Bodies Make use of the Free Offers Made to these Bodies"

Date: 25/9/1432 AH, corresponding to 25/8/2011 AD.

 

Praise be to Allah, peace and blessings be upon Prophet Muhammad and upon his family and companions.

During its twelfth session held on the above given date, the Board reviewed the following question:

We are a nine-teacher committee, five of whom are elected and four are appointed by the Ministry of Education. It is called "The Administrative Body of the Tafilah Teachers` Club."

We offer free voluntary services to the club and the teachers. The club runs an Umrah (Minor Hajj) journey through certain travel agencies and the teachers willing to go should pay the fare.

Is it permissible for a member of the administrative body to take that journey for free? Is it permissible to condition that the travel agency provides two free seats for the administrative body and the staff of the club in return for guiding and supervising that journey?

After prolonged deliberations, the Board decided what follows:

If the administrative body conditioned that the travel agency provides two free seats or more (Travel agencies usually give free seats as a kind of promotion), then that is permissible provided that the fare of those free seats is equally divided amongst those making the Umrah journey and that the members of the above committee don`t take advantage of those seats and exclude the teachers. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board 

The General Mufti of The Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan :His Eminence , Abd Al-Kareem Al-Khasawneh

Vice Head of Iftaa` Board:  His Eminence Dr. Ahmad Hilayel

Dr.Yahia Al-Botosh/member

His Eminence :Sheikh Sa`id Al-Hijawi/member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Essa/member

His Excellency : Judge Sari Attieh/member

.Dr.Abdulrahman Ibdaah/member

Dr.Mohammad Oglah Al-Ibrahim/member

Dr.Abdulnasir Abulbasal/member

Dr.Mohammad Al-Zo`bi/member

Dr.Mohammad Al-Gharaibeh/member

Executive Secretary of Iftaa`Board:Sheikh Mohammad Al-Hinaiti

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on waiving a debt owed by a debtor and counting it toward zakāh?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Waiving a debt owed by a debtor, with the intention of counting it toward zakāh, does not fulfill the zakāh obligation. Rather, it constitutes an ordinary act of charity, for which Allah rewards the giver generously — since one of the conditions for the validity of zakāh is that the person paying it must form the intention of zakāh at the actual moment the wealth is paid out. In this case, the debt has already been established as a standing obligation upon the borrower, so it is not valid to simply redirect the intention toward zakāh after the fact.
It is preferable, instead, for the creditor to first collect the debt from the debtor, and then return to him the amount of money he is required to pay as zakāh — or a portion of it — if the debtor happens to fall under one of the eight categories that Allah, the Exalted, has commanded be given from zakāh.
It is stated in ‘Umdat as-Sālik, from the books of the Shāfi‘ī school: "If someone gives [money] to a poor person, stipulating that the recipient return it to him in payment of a debt owed to him, or says, 'I am making what you owe me into zakāh, so take it [as such]' — this is not valid. But if he gives it to him with the [unstated] intention that the recipient will use it to repay him, or says, 'Repay what you owe me, so that I may [then separately] give it to you as zakāh,' or the debtor himself says, 'Give it to me, so that I may [then] repay you with it' — this is valid, and there is no binding obligation for the recipient to actually fulfill this [informal understanding]." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on kissing while fasting?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is prohibitively disliked (makrūh taḥrīman) for a husband to engage in foreplay with or kiss his wife during the daylight hours of Ramaḍān if doing so stirs his desire. If pre-seminal fluid (madhī) is released as a result, the fast is not invalidated; however, if seminal fluid (manī) is released, the fast is broken.
Imām al-Khaṭīb al-Sharbīnī, may Allah have mercy upon him, stated: "It is prohibitively disliked to kiss — whether on the mouth or elsewhere — for one whose desire is stirred, whether man or woman, to the extent that he fears it may lead to intercourse or ejaculation. Embracing, touching, and similar acts without a barrier carry the same ruling as kissing in this regard, because such acts expose the act of worship to being corrupted — and as the two Ṣaḥīḥs record: 'Whoever circles around a protected boundary is liable to fall into it.'"
He further added: "It is preferable for one whose desire is not stirred — even if he is a young man — to refrain from such acts as well, so as to close the door entirely. For he may believe his desire has not been aroused when in fact it has. Moreover, it is Sunnah for the fasting person to abstain from all desires without exception." — Summarised with minor adaptation from [Mughnī al-Muḥtāj]. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is fidyah required for someone who breaks their fast due to a valid excuse?

● If the excuse is permanent, such as a chronic illness with no hope of recovery or old age, then fidyah is required. This means feeding one needy person for each missed fasting day.
● However, if the excuse is temporary, such as menstruation, postnatal bleeding, or a temporary illness, then only making up the missed fasts (qada) is required, and fidyah does not apply.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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