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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(200) Amount of Zakah of Fitr

Date Added : 02-11-2015

Resolution No.(200) (10/2014) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies for the year 1435 A.H.

Amount of Zakah of Fitr

Date:25/Sha`ban/1435 A.H corresponding to 19/6/2014 A.D

All praise be to Allah, peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon his family and righteous companions:

The  Board, in its 8th session held on Thursday (25 /Sha`ban/ 1435AH) corresponding to  (19/6/2014AD), reviewed  the issue of estimating the amount of Zakah of Fitr. After careful review  and deliberation, it decided the following:

Giving Zakaatul-Fitr is an obligatory act of worship in Islam and one aspect of social solidarity which characterizes our forbearing  Islamic Sharia particularly in the sacred month of Ramadan, the month of piety, goodness and kindness. Therefore, it has been prescribed during the sacred month of Ramadan as an  obligation on every Muslim who possesses enough food exceeding his or his family's basic needs for the duration of the day or night of 'Eed. Any Muslim who meets this condition has to give it on behalf of everyone he is obliged to spend on, such as his wife, children, parents and even his baby who was born before the sunset of the last day of Ramadan.

Ibn 'Umar narrated: “Allah's Apostle made it incumbent on all the slave or free Muslims, male or female, to pay one Sa' of dates or barley as Zakat-ul-Fitr.”{Bukhari&Muslim}.

Abu Sa'id Al-Khudri narrated: ”In the life-time of the Prophet we used to give one Sa' of food or one Sa' of dates or one Sa' of barley or one Sa' of raisins (dried grapes) as Sadaqat-ul-Fitr.”{Bukhari&Muslim}.

 

The amount of Zakatulfitr is one Sa` (2.5 kg) from what the people of that country  eat the most, and it is  lawful to give its value in currency.

 

Since the price of one kg of wheat is estimated at (60) piasters, every individual has to give (150) piasters as a minimum for Zakatulfitr, and one who wishes to give more may estimate the value of other food items such as dates and raisins in line with what they can afford, and their reward is due from Allah. It is better if it is given out on 'Eed day but if it is given on the first day of Ramadan then that is also sufficient.

It is the religious duty of all Muslims to honorably hold this symbol of God, and make sure that it is given to the needy in its due time  for it purifies the souls of those who do so. Therefore, it is due on the child and the sick who are exempted from fasting in Ramadan. Ibn Abbass(May Allah be pleased with them) narrated that the Prophet(PBUH) described Zakatulfitr as: “ Purity to the fasting Muslim from vain talk and obscenity, and food to the needy.”{Abu Dawood}.

We pray that Allah accepts our acts of obedience and forgive our sins. And Allah knows best.

 

The Mufti General of The Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan: Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh

Prof. Haiel Abdulhafiez/ Member. Prof. Abdulnassir Abulbassal/Member

His Eminence Sheikh Sai`d Hijjawi/Member. Dr.Yahi Albtoosh/Member

Prof.Mohammad Al-Khodat/Member. Dr. Moh. Khair Al-Esaa/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalaylah/Member Dr. Mohammad Al-

Zou`bi/Member

Dr. Wassif Al-Bak`kri/ Member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling of Islamic Law regarding one who slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, and is it permissible to slaughter the ewe if one knows it is pregnant?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
If a person slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, the fetus becomes lawful (ḥalāl) by virtue of its mother's slaughter (tabaʿan li-ummihā).
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.6/P.158): "A fetus found dead [after the mother's slaughter], or found alive but in a state resembling that of a slaughtered animal [i.e., dying shortly after], becomes lawful — whether or not it had grown fur — provided it is found in the womb of a mother that was lawfully slaughtered, whether her slaughter was by cutting the throat, or by an arrow or hunting dog sent after her. This is based on the ḥadīth: 'The slaughtering of the fetus is [effected by] the slaughtering of its mother' [narrated by al-Tirmidhī, who graded it ḥasan, and by Ibn Ḥibbān, who graded it ṣaḥīḥ] — meaning that the slaughter which rendered the mother lawful renders the fetus lawful as well, by virtue of following her; and because the fetus is one of her constituent parts, and her slaughter renders lawful all of her parts."
This ruling differs, however, from the case of one who knows from the outset that the ewe is pregnant [and intends to sacrifice her specifically as the udḥiyah while pregnant] — in which case, according to the Shāfi'ī school, she does not fulfill the requirement of a valid sacrifice.
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Bujayrimī 'alā al-Khaṭīb (Vol.4/P.335): "A pregnant animal does not fulfill the requirement [of a valid sacrifice], and this is the authoritative position (al-mu'tamad), because pregnancy diminishes the quality of the meat. As for why such an animal is nevertheless counted as complete [i.e., fully valid] in matters of zakāh, that is because the intent there is reproduction (nasl), not the quality of the meat.". And Allah, the Most High, knows best.

Is Zakah (obligatory charity) due on articles of merchandise even if they were stacked in the merchant`s stores for years?

Yes, Zakah is due on goods even if they were stacked in merchant`s stores for years, in this manner Islam struggle against monopoly.

What is the ruling on the cessation of blood after (40) days from delivery, but later continued sporadically during two days of Ramadan?

Once postpartum bleeding (Nifas) ceases, and the woman is certain that it won`t reoccur, then she becomes ritually pure and so she is free to make Ghusl (purificatory bath), pray, and fast. If the bleeding reoccurs before fifteen days from its cessation, and before the end of (60) days after delivery, then the ruling on postpartum bleeding is effective, and her fasting and prayer are null and void, thus she must make up the fasting that she missed and not the prayer during those particular days.

What is the ruling on ablution if vaginal discharge is expelled, and is it impure?

If these discharges exit from the external genitalia (apparent part of the vagina), they are not impure and do not invalidate ablution. If they exit from the internal part, they are impure and do invalidate ablution. If it is uncertain whether they are from the internal or external part, they are not impure and do not invalidate ablution.
 
The apparent part is what becomes visible when sitting, and what the husband's penis reaches during intercourse is considered part of the apparent. The internal part is what is beyond that. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

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