I am a wholesale gold trader. My clients are retail gold shop owners. I sell them gold jewelry and ornaments on credit, and they repay me in weekly installments over a period of two months or more. The payments are made in cash for the labor charges and for the gold they owe me. In return, they may give me either cash or used gold.
It is not permissible to sell gold or silver on an installment basis or with a deferred payment; rather, immediate exchange is required. The Messenger of Allah (PBUH) said: "Gold for gold, silver for silver, wheat for wheat, barley for barley, dates for dates, and salt for salt, like for like, hand to hand. Whoever gives more or asks for more has engaged in usury; the giver and receiver are the same in this regard." (Muslim). Additionally, the weight of the gold must be equal when exchanging new for used; otherwise, it involves usury. The solution is to buy the used gold with cash, then sell the new gold for cash as well. However, payment must be made at the time of the transaction in both cases. Alternatively, one could take the used gold with the intention of refining it, reshape it into a new form, or repair it, then take a fee for the workmanship or repair. And Allah Knows Best
Is it permissible to perform Tayammum for a month due to a medical condition that requires avoiding water?
Tayammum is permissible so long as the above excuse lasts. And Allah Knows Best.
During a flight from Amman to the UAE, while we were flying over Saudi Arabia, the captain announced that it was time to break our fast, coinciding with the exact time of sunset. After I had broken my fast with my first date, the captain apologized for the earlier announcement and clarified that the correct time would be in 20 minutes. Am I required to continue fasting on that day?
Whosoever break his fast at teh very first announcement to make up the missed day of Ramadan, since Allah, The Most Exalted, Said (What means): "then complete your fast Till the night appears" [Al-Baqara/187]. And Allah Knows Best.
It was found out that a man divorced his wife for the third time in 2005, but they continued cohabiting as man and wife. However, when they realized that what they were doing was unlawful, they came the Iftaa` Department in 2009 and were told that they can`t be together. What is the position of Sharia on this couple?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Her Iddah* period starts after the third divorce. As for the continued cohabitation, it is unlawful because being ignorant about the rulings of Sharia while in Dar Al-Islam* is no valid excuse. If a baby came as the fruit of this unlawful consummation of marriage, then a judge of Sharia has the final say in this regard because lineage is a serious matter. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* ʿIddah: a specified period of time that must elapse before a Muslim widow or divorcee may legitimately remarry. The Qurʾān (Sura,2/verse,228) prescribes that a menstruating woman have three monthly periods before contracting a new marriage; the required delay for a nonmenstruating woman is three lunar months.
* Dar Al-Islam: designates a territory where Muslims are free to practice their religion, though this often implies the implementation of Islamic law, whereas Dar al-Harb represents those lands ruled by non-believers
