During Ramadan, a man had sexual intercourse with his wife. What is the expiation for that? And is he permitted to pay the expiation?
If a man has intercourse with his wife during the daytime in Ramadan, he must make up for that day and offer expiation. The expiation is fasting for two consecutive months. If he is unable to do so, he must feed sixty needy people. And Allah Knows Best.
I work in an accounting and auditing office, and among the clients of the office are restaurants, hotels, and supermarkets that sell alcohol. Our work is limited to collecting invoices, whether purchases, sales, or expenses, and recording them in daily books. We also review income and sales taxes on behalf of these clients.
You are more knowledgeable about the nature of your work. If you see it as assisting in wrongdoing, then it is forbidden, as Allah The Exalted Says (What means): "And cooperate in righteousness and piety, but do not cooperate in sin and aggression" [Al-Ma’idah/2]. However, if your work is merely documenting the reality, then I hope there is no sin upon you. The the pious predecessors (Salaf) used to take the tithe from the traders of the People of the Book, even if it included alcohol, after knowing the value of their goods. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a woman to offer the obligatory prayer after Adhaan (call for prayer), and before Iqamah (The announcement that the prayer is about to begin) in the mosque?
Yes, it is permissible for a woman to offer the obligatory prayer immediately after the Adhan and before the Iqamah in the mosque. And Allah Knows Best.
Is the Saum (Fasting) of someone who ate and drank forgetfully while offering fasting of oath expiation invalidated?
Whosoever eats, or drinks forgetfully is exempted by Allah; therefore, he/she shouldn`t break their fast whether it was obligatory, non-obligatory, or expiatory. And Allah Knows Best.