What is the ruling of Sharia on unregistered marriage in Jordan?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Aishah narrated that the Messenger of Allah said: "Whichever woman married without the permission of her Wali her marriage is invalid, her marriage is invalid, her marriage is invalid. If he entered into her, then the Mahr is for her in lieu of what he enjoyed from her private part. If they disagree, then the Sultan is the Wali for one who has no Wali." [At-Tirmithi, Hadith No.1102]. The Prophet (PBUH) also said: "There is no marriage without a guardian and two honorable witnesses." Related in [Al-Mo`jam Al-Basit for At-Tabarani, pp.6366]. Registration of the marriage contract at Islamic court is necessary for the preservation of rights and failing to do so is punishable by Jordanian Law. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best
By slip of the tongue, my son cursed Allah. It is worth pointing that he has concluded his marriage contract recently, but haven`t consummated the marriage. What is the position of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to AllahThe Lord of The Worlds and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
This person must return to the fold of Islam by uttering the two testimonies of faith and making repentance to Allah from all acts that lead to disbelief. Also, he must make a new marriage contract because the old one was dissolved after he had committed this act of disbelief. Moreover, since there is no waiting period for his wife, then she is in state of Talaq ba`en baynona Soghra (Minor irrevocable divorce); consequently, she can get back to him only by a new marriage contract. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is ablution invalidated when blood comes out of the nose, or a wound?
Blood coming out of the nose, or a wound does not invalidate ablution, but it is preferable to make ablution as a way out of the scholars disagreement in this regard.
If someone bought a car from an interest-based bank and then sold it to another person, does the second person bear any sin if they use the car's price to pay the installments owed to the bank?
When the buyer purchased the car, it became their property, and the price became their responsibility. The bank acts as the seller's agent for receiving the payment. Therefore, there is no sin on the second buyer, God willing, as long as the bank does not impose an increase in the amount if a payment is delayed. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
