What is the ruling on performing istinja' before every ablution?
Istinja' is not from the conditions for the validity of ablution. It is only obligatory for prayer when there is impurity from urine or stool on the private part, or if there is fear of the impurity spreading to the body or clothing. And Allah the Almighty knows best.
What is the ruling on performing Tahajjud after the Witr?
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
It is permissible for one who has prayed the Witr to perform voluntary (Nafl) prayers after it. However, it is preferable for the Witr to be the final prayer of the night. Therefore, if a person is confident that they will wake up during the night for Tahajjud, it is recommended for them to delay the Witr until after the Tahajjud. Conversely, if one fears they may not wake up, they should perform the Witr before sleeping.
Al-Khatib al-Shirbini (may Allah have mercy on him) stated: 'It is not disliked (Makruh) to perform Tahajjud after the Witr, but it is not recommended to do so intentionally.' [Mughni al-Muhtaj, Vol. 1/P.454]. And Allah the Exalted knows best."
If the bleeding ceases after 40 days following childbirth, but then returns intermittently during two days of fasting, what is the ruling?
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
Whenever the post-natal bleeding (Nifas) ceases and the woman is certain it will not return, she has become pure; therefore, she must perform the ritual bath (Ghusl) and resume praying and fasting. However, if the blood returns within fifteen days of its cessation and before sixty days have passed since the delivery, the ruling of Nifas applies once again. Consequently, any fasting or prayer performed during that interval of purity is rendered invalid; she must make up for the missed fasts of those days, but she is not required to make up for the prayers. And Allah the Exalted knows best.
I`m keeping a plot of land (10 Dunums) for my children. Is it liable for Zakah?
Praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds.
Land that is purchased with the intention of ownership and personal benefit—meaning to retain it for use and not for trade—is not subject to zakāh, as such property is not considered from trade commodities (ʿurūḍ al-tijārah).
It is stated in Al-Ḥāwī al-Kabīr:
“If it is property and one intends it for trade, then zakāh is due upon it; but if he intends it for personal possession, then no zakāh is due upon it.” And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
