What is the ruling of Islamic Law on the "wheel of fortune"?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
If entry into the contest is free of charge, meaning it is not paid for, and a company offers it to a customer so that he may enter a prize draw, then there is no objection or sin in it. In that case, it is considered a gift from the merchant. This is what appears in Iftaa Board Resolution No.
3/2010. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
What is the ruling on the white discharge (*Al-Qassat al-Bayda'*) if it is in a very small amount—is it considered a sign of purity?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
Among the signs of purity (Tahr) for a woman is the white discharge (Al-Qassat al-Bayda'), which is a clear, pure white fluid, regardless of whether it is minimal in quantity, or complete dryness (Jafaf), wherein secretions cease entirely such that if a white cotton cloth is inserted, it comes out completely clean. Once a woman observes either of these two signs, she has attained ritual purity.
Furthermore, another sign of purity is when the duration of the menstrual period exceeds the maximum limit of menstruation, which is fifteen days. If it exceeds this period, it becomes evident that she is experiencing non-menstrual bleeding (Istihadah).
How should the udhiyah be distributed?
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
It is obligatory to give the poor a portion of the meat from a voluntary sacrifice (Udhiyah al-Tatawwu’), which should not be less than approximately half a kilogram of raw meat. Other parts do not suffice for this obligation, such as the liver, tripe, or intestines.
It is Sunnah for the one offering the sacrifice to divide it into thirds: one-third for himself and his household to eat, one-third to be given as charity to the poor, and one-third to be given as a gift to friends and neighbors, even if they are wealthy. And Allah the Almighty knows best.
Is it permissible for a wife to refuse to go to bed with her husband (for sexual intercourse)?
It isn`t permissible for her to do so unless for a sound reason.
