It was found out that a man divorced his wife for the third time in 2005, but they continued cohabiting as man and wife. However, when they realized that what they were doing was unlawful, they came the Iftaa` Department in 2009 and were told that they can`t be together. What is the position of Sharia on this couple?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Her Iddah* period starts after the third divorce. As for the continued cohabitation, it is unlawful because being ignorant about the rulings of Sharia while in Dar Al-Islam* is no valid excuse. If a baby came as the fruit of this unlawful consummation of marriage, then a judge of Sharia has the final say in this regard because lineage is a serious matter. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* ʿIddah: a specified period of time that must elapse before a Muslim widow or divorcee may legitimately remarry. The Qurʾān (Sura,2/verse,228) prescribes that a menstruating woman have three monthly periods before contracting a new marriage; the required delay for a nonmenstruating woman is three lunar months.
* Dar Al-Islam: designates a territory where Muslims are free to practice their religion, though this often implies the implementation of Islamic law, whereas Dar al-Harb represents those lands ruled by non-believers
A woman didn't fufill fasting of the month of Ramadan two years ago, due to pregnancy and breastfeeding, at the time being she is making up the missed Ramadan. What is the ruling of Sharia? And what is due on her?
Whosoever break the fast during Ramadan or didn't fast at all due to health concerns, is obliged to make up the missed fasts whenever she could so long as making up missed Ramadan didn't extend to the coming one, and if next one arrived without fulling fasting the missed one, the ransom is 60 grams for each missed day (Equals 60 piasters to one Dinar for each day). And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it permissible for the father to give the Zakat of his money to his poor married son?
It is permissible for the father to give part of the Zakat to his poor son, if the latter was sound and healthy, because in this case the father isn't obliged to spend on his young son, even though; he is considered one of the Muslims poor. And Allah Knows Best.
What is the stance of Ahlus-Sunnah wal-Jama'ah regarding the historical figure known as 'the Sufyani,' who some say will appear at the end of times? And what is the stance of Ahlus-Sunnah wal-Jama'ah regarding the group that killed Al-Husayn ibn Ali (may Allah be pleased with them), particularly those who directly committed the killing, severed his head, and killed members of his family?
Most of the narrations about the signs of the Hour concerning the Sufyani, who is said to appear before the Mahdi, indicate that he is the leader of the army that will invade the Kaaba, and Allah will cause the earth to swallow them. We disassociate ourselves before Allah from those who killed Al-Husayn Ibn Ali (may Allah be pleased with them), supported his killing, or encouraged it, whether openly or secretly. The inner matters are left to Allah alone. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
