Does fasting on behalf of a deceased person permissible?
Fasting on belhaf of a deceased person is permissible, since the Prophet (PBUH) said: "Whoever dies while he still has some fasts to make up (of the days of Ramadan), then his heir (any of them) should fast on his behalf." [Agreed upon]. The previous answer is for making up missed obligatory fasts on behalf of the deceased. But if the fasting on behlaf of the deceased was for performing a voluntary acts of devotion such as fasting....is permissible as adopted by the majority of Muslim scholars and based on the above hadith as they stated "Every good dead intended to be on behalf of the deceased its reward will reach the latter." And Allah Knows Best.
Is committing Zina (Adultery and extramarital sex) without the intention of getting pregnant or deflowered considered full Zina?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
The Messenger of Allah (PBUH) says: "The eyes commit fornication, the hands, the feet, and the private parts." [Musnad Ahmad, P.3912]. Sheikh Shu`aib `Arn`oot graded this Hadith as sound. What you are asking about is far graver. Generally speaking, sincere repentance erases sins, good deeds erase bad deeds, and fearing Allah stops one from committing this heinous act. In addition, the devil is man`s worst enemy and whoever surrenders themselves to the wolf will be eaten. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a Muslim physician to specialize in gynecology obstetrics, and what is the ruling on working as such?
Some fields of knowledge are an individual duty while others are a collective one, and specializing in gynecology obstetrics is a collective duty. However, if there were female physicians to treat women, then there is no need for a male gynecology obstetrics specialist to look at women`s Awrahs (private parts) except in necessary situations since the jurisprudential maxim says:” Necessity must only be assessed and answered proportionately.” And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a father to divide his property amongst his children except one under the pretext that he has paid for the latter`s tuition? This is knowing that his other children were given the opportunity to pursue their education but didn`t because they were educationally poor. Moreover, is he allowed to give his other children who have helped him with growing his business?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
The father should be just between his children as regards gifts, in case they had similar circumstances. However, if any had a special merit, then it is permissible for the father to take that into account to be just. For example, giving his children who have helped in making his fortune and received no reward for that or giving the little ones because they haven`t taken as much as the older ones or giving the sick child who is unable to make a living. The most important thing is achieving justice. Moreover, the father is not interdicted by any of his children, and he is free to do whatever he wants with his money and Allah will call him to account as regards observing justice between his children. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
