I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Ruling on combining prayers in a marketplace due to heavy rain, knowing that some people performing prayers are customers?
If returning to perform the Asr or Isha prayers causes difficulty for the people, it is permissible. Please contact us. And Allah Knows Best.
A woman didn't fufill fasting of the month of Ramadan two years ago, due to pregnancy and breastfeeding, at the time being she is making up the missed Ramadan. What is the ruling of Sharia? And what is due on her?
Whosoever break the fast during Ramadan or didn't fast at all due to health concerns, is obliged to make up the missed fasts whenever she could so long as making up missed Ramadan didn't extend to the coming one, and if next one arrived without fulling fasting the missed one, the ransom is 60 grams for each missed day (Equals 60 piasters to one Dinar for each day). And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
I have mixed (halal and haram) money, and I want to purify it. My father is poor, and I want him, my mother, and my mother-in-law to perform Hajj, along with myself and my wife, as they need care due to their old age. Is it permissible to use this money for Hajj, or what should I do with it? Please advise.
If you knew the exact amount of unlawful money, then you should give as a charity, and if didn't then try to figure out the closest amount in order to give it as a charity.
As for performing Hajj, perform it by using your lawful money. May Allah Bless you for being dutiful to your parents and your mother in law and for your attempt to serve them, And Allah Knows Best.
