I have a question regarding the deferred portion of the dowry (Mahr)*. Is the wife entitled to it only upon divorce or she can claim it even if divorce hasn`t taken place? Moreover, does she have the right to claim this portion after death of husband, even if he didn`t divorce her before that?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
In the marriage contract, it is recorded that the deferred portion of the dowry is due upon divorce or death, whatever comes first. If divorce took place first then the woman is entitled to it and if the husband died this amount must be paid from his estate. On the other hand, if the woman died then the husband becomes liable for this portion and it becomes part of the woman`s estate. We advise every husband to give this portion to his wife while alive because it is a right of hers. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* In Islam, a Mahr is the obligation, in the form of money or possessions paid by the groom, to the bride at the time of Islamic marriage (payment also has circumstances on when and how to pay). While the mahr is often money, it can also be anything agreed upon by the bride such as jewelry, home goods, furniture, a dwelling or some land. Mahr is typically specified in the marriage contract signed upon marriage.
I want to buy a house by having a loan from a bank?
If taking a loan from usrious banks it is impermissible; on the other hand, if this took place through Islamic ones then it is permissible to get the loan, since Allah the Most Exalted Said (What means): "And Allah has made buying lawful and forbidden usury (riba)." And Allah Knows Best.
Is there zakat on social security savings (retirement benefits)?
If the retirement benefits are received, zakat is due on them for one year. Before receiving them, they are not in the person’s possession to be liable for zakat. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a father to divide his property amongst his children except one under the pretext that he has paid for the latter`s tuition? This is knowing that his other children were given the opportunity to pursue their education but didn`t because they were educationally poor. Moreover, is he allowed to give his other children who have helped him with growing his business?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
The father should be just between his children as regards gifts, in case they had similar circumstances. However, if any had a special merit, then it is permissible for the father to take that into account to be just. For example, giving his children who have helped in making his fortune and received no reward for that or giving the little ones because they haven`t taken as much as the older ones or giving the sick child who is unable to make a living. The most important thing is achieving justice. Moreover, the father is not interdicted by any of his children, and he is free to do whatever he wants with his money and Allah will call him to account as regards observing justice between his children. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
